Originally Posted by ForceoftheTruth";p=&quot

I am a Christian. I also support gay marriage and gay adoption, though I think that, until and unless homosexuality is proven to be inborn, gay rights issues must be left to the states. If that is proven (which it probably will be at some point), gay marriage and adoption become 14th Amendment issues of equality and must be legal in all states. Now, I am not a Scriptural literalist, so I reject some parts of the Bible, including sexist passages and the ones that seem to condemn homosexuality so strongly. But for those who don't reject the passages about sodomy, it occurred to me, as it has, no doubt, to others, that the condemnation of sodomy in both the Old and the New Testament may have been in place to prevent bisexuals from committing adultery with other men. After all, adultery, in those days, was probably thought of as something that a man and a woman committed, and in many ancient cultures, homosexual relationships were considered fundamentally different from heterosexual ones in nearly every respect. Accordingly, although the Ten Commandments forbid adultery, the Bible's early readers may not have understood this as forbidding married men from having homosexual affairs- hence the warnings about sodomy. It may also have been that nearly all men married- even homosexuals, so it was thought necessary to condemn all homosexuality. As such, it may be the case that the Bible in no way condemns monogamous homosexual relationships. I appreciate all replies. Thank you very much.