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Old 03-08-2008, 08:31 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ckrall View Post
How can it be fair for the government to tax one person "X" because they make "X" amount of money and then take it form them and give to someone else. (government programs)
It cannot be fair. It is collectivist statist mentality, and it is theft:

"To take a man's property without his consent is robbery; and to assume his consent where no consent is given, makes the taking none the less robbery. If it did not, the highwayman has the same right to assume a man's consent to part with his purse, that any other man, or body of men, can have. And his assumption would afford as much moral justification for his robbery as does a like assumption, on the part of the government, for taking a man's property without his consent. The government's pretense of protecting him, as an equivalent for the taxation, affords no justification. It is for himself to decide whether he desires such protection as the government offers him. If he does not desire it, or does not bargain for it, the government has no more right, than any other insurance company to impose it upon him, or make him pay for it." - Lysander Spooner, "Trial by Jury"
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