I'm noticing in previous pages that people seem to be making references to another characteristic of democracies--that of the polarized distinction between individual rights and majority/mob rule.

The majority/mob is not always right. This is why we have the Bill of Rights--to protect us in the case that we find ourselves in the oppressed minority.

We have far too many uneducated people who have biased opinions based on absolutely no evidence or incorrect information. The only answer might be a heavy investment in education. But even then, do people have the right to remain ignorant? How is it right for someone to have the same voting rights as I do when they remain ignorant by choice? And yet it would violate an individual's personal rights somehow to force education, or my interpretation of education, on that person. I am at a loss of what to substitute.

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