I recently had a discussion with a co-work and honestly I do not know how I feel about it. Maybe a libertarian can help me out here. The discussion came up because my company is being sold and one employee has a felony conviction from 25 years ago. During this time they have paid taxes, however they have not been able to cast a vote in any election. I am well aware of the slogan No taxation without representation and how it was used in the 1700. However, could one make the case that felons are expected to pay taxes, yet because of a conviction lose their right to representation? The point is he/felons served their time or made reparations (I don't know if that is the right word "help") for their crimes. The point is they are square with the house and should they forfeit their right to representation? I do believe that the right to vote is not a privilege. Privilege to me means oppression, and a right represents freedom which is what this country was the reason this country was founded. This made me think very hard about what America is to me and they pretty much changed my mind. I feel as long as convicted felons are paying taxes, they should retain the right to vote ( this argument could also be made for owning guns as well). I do agree that yes some convicted felons have committed very bad crimes. However, as Americans how can we have a say in our government, how can we make someone pay taxes yet not give them the right to have a say in the policies of America? Especially after they have served their punishment? I am sure this has been hashed out before but I could not find it through the search. I am also concerned maybe I do no thave the right outlook on this.