
Originally Posted by
BleedingHeadKen
"Immense harm to society" is meaningless. If there is an identifiable victim, then there is a crime.
That's what I mean.

Originally Posted by
BleedingHeadKen
The claim that "society is harmed" without any identifiable victims of an identifiable action is pure sophistry.
Agreed.

Originally Posted by
BleedingHeadKen
Drugs don't harm society. The use of illicit drugs doesn't harm society. Occasionally a user of a prohibitied substance will harm another person who is a member of society. Statistically, drug users are more likely to harm other people than non-drug users. This is given as evidence that drug use must be stopped and criminalized. However, statistically, vehicle drivers are more likely to harm other people than non-vehicle drivers (40,000 are killed, many more maimed by vehicle drivers) yet there is no call for outlawing vehicles. If prohibitionists trully felt there is a moral imperative to save lives by eliminating risk, then they would call for all activity that creates risk for individuals not engaged in that activity to be prohibited. So, it can be rationally concluded that it is not the harm that is done to some individuals that concerns the prohibitionist, but the enjoyment of the substance without any societal benefit that then makes it immoral. Drugs are bad because they are fun.
True, however society is affected by having to often pay for the repercussions of said substance abuse, but this is for another thread. In essence and principle I agree with you.
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I'm willing to change my position at any time on any issue. I have done so in the past. All you need is a logical, provable case, and I'm all in. The question is, have you got what it takes?
Oh, and just so you're not confused, I'm an apatheist libertarian.
"If we don't believe in freedom of expression for people we despise, we don't believe in it at all." --Noam Chomsky
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