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Originally Posted by Okamifujutsu
Tax code applies to everyone, just like marriage code applies to everyone. By your logic (and it is yours), it must be inherently non-discriminatory.
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yes, it should be non discriminatory. thats why the current marriage code is none discriminatory. everyone can get married. the law isnt the problem, its the definition of marriage. thats why im in favor of the government not taking part in marriage at all.
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And since you didn't answer my question, I'll ask it again. Would a ban on having sex with a person of the same gender be discriminatory?
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it depends how the wording was stated. if it applied to anyone, regardless of sex then it would be non discriminatory. if it applied to only gays or only straights, then it would be discriminatory.
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If so, then how is this different than the ban on same sex marriage?
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a ban on same sex marriage is non discriminatory if it applies to everyone. however im not in favor of such ban.
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If not, then something that negatively affects every gay person and 0.00001% of straight people can not be discriminatory by your definition, in which case your definition is pretty much useless, and I'll find a new word that carries some meaning to use with you.
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its not my definition, its the accepted deffinition. also, taking in account the affect of it on any sexual orientation, gay or straight, would be discriminatory. like i said, its not the governments business what you do. as far as im concerned, as long as youre not hurting anyone by an action, then it should be allowed.