Thread: Gay population in the USA....1.7%...less than 2%

http://www.washingtontimes.com/news/...of-population/

the article is a year old but the number is similar to the Gay Times article which I've posted several times.

What is of interest is that there is a number who also report to having engaged in gay sex. Would you count them as being gay?

Do you accept the less than 2% number or should those who engage in gay sex also be counted?

what do you see as the reason that the number is much lower than the 3-5% which has wrongly been tossed around?

Originally Posted by sec

http://www.washingtontimes.com/news/...of-population/

the article is a year old but the number is similar to the Gay Times article which I've posted several times.

What is of interest is that there is a number who also report to having engaged in gay sex. Would you count them as being gay?

Do you accept the less than 2% number or should those who engage in gay sex also be counted?

what do you see as the reason that the number is much lower than the 3-5% which has wrongly been tossed around?

No, I wouldn't consider a person who sumitted once as a gay person. I also don't care about the numbers. Gay people are a group, regardless of the size, whose unique problems and needs should be considered seriously and addressed when appropriate.

Originally Posted by PatrickT

No, I wouldn't consider a person who sumitted once as a gay person. I also don't care about the numbers. Gay people are a group, regardless of the size, whose unique problems and needs should be considered seriously and addressed when appropriate.

but the number does seem to be skewed because of the confusion. If a person has gay sex, but refuses to accept that they are homosexual should they not still be counted? I'm not saying that the college girls who are drunk and put on a display are gay but if they continuously do it, then yes.

I think that ALL of the studies on the homosexual population are flawed.

One simple reason is the stigma attached to labeling yourself as a homosexual. Many people have sex with people of the same sex, but won't self identify as gay.
This study and most others are based on self identification.

Originally Posted by wolfsgirl

I think that ALL of the studies on the homosexual population are flawed.

One simple reason is the stigma attached to labeling yourself as a homosexual. Many people have sex with people of the same sex, but won't self identify as gay.
This study and most others are based on self identification.

then you agree that the criteria for homosexuality is the act itself. I agree with that and believe if counted correctly the number may well be near the 5% we hear about.

Originally Posted by sec

then you agree that the criteria for homosexuality is the act itself. I agree with that and believe if counted correctly the number may well be near the 5% we hear about.

No the criteria (in my opinion) is attraction to people of the same sex. There are self identifying homosexuals that have never has sex.
I don't think that there is a way to get an accurate count. The only thing you have to go on is self identification.

It really doesn't matter, because we are all American citizens, and should be treated equally in the eyes of the laws of this country.

Originally Posted by sec

then you agree that the criteria for homosexuality is the act itself. I agree with that and believe if counted correctly the number may well be near the 5% we hear about.

Then you'd be counting bisexuals who don't identify as gay, and you'd be failing to count gay people who aren't sexually active.

In other words, counting the number of people who have engaged in same-sex behavior is a much broader category and a different thing from counting those who experience an enduring same-sex attraction. The latter can only be counted by self-identifying.

Similarly, counting the number of people involved in a same-sex relationship is different from counting the number of people in a same-sex relationship whose feelings of attraction are primarily directed toward the same-sex. "Same-sex couples" include combinations of gay/gay, gay/bisexual, and bisexual/bisexual couples. The state of experiencing attraction that is not enduringly differentiated very strongly toward one sex as compared to the other doesn't mean a person must be in a relationship with members of both sexes.

Final observation: I'm not sure why it matters what the percentage is. I would posit as true that what one counts would be tied to the purpose of counting, and using that count to make observations beyond the original purpose of the count is automatically suspect.

Originally Posted by wolfsgirl

No the criteria (in my opinion) is attraction to people of the same sex. There are self identifying homosexuals that have never has sex.
I don't think that there is a way to get an accurate count. The only thing you have to go on is self identification.

It really doesn't matter, because we are all American citizens, and should be treated equally in the eyes of the laws of this country.

on this we definitely agree and thus why I am against any affirmative action type program where one special interest group is given protected status

to the number, it is good for any special interest to be able to clarify the size of the group. It helps us evil capitalists who like to target niche markets if they are under-served. It also helps politicians who want to pander to special interests.

To target market to 4-5 million people doesn't get my blood moving. But, if that market is more like 10-15 million and is under-served, then that is an interesting market.

Originally Posted by Perriquine

Then you'd be counting bisexuals who don't identify as gay, and you'd be failing to count gay people who aren't sexually active.

In other words, counting the number of people who have engaged in same-sex behavior is a much broader category and a different thing from counting those who experience an enduring same-sex attraction. The latter can only be counted by self-identifying.

Similarly, counting the number of people involved in a same-sex relationship is different from counting the number of people in a same-sex relationship whose feelings of attraction are primarily directed toward the same-sex. "Same-sex couples" include combinations of gay/gay, gay/bisexual, and bisexual/bisexual couples. The state of experiencing attraction that is not enduringly differentiated very strongly toward one sex as compared to the other doesn't mean a person must be in a relationship with members of both sexes.

Final observation: I'm not sure why it matters what the percentage is. I would posit as true that what one counts would be tied to the purpose of counting, and using that count to make observations beyond the original purpose of the count is automatically suspect.

to the 2 points underlined

that is why identifying those who have engaged in the act is important. I would venture to guess that those who claim to be bi would share similar political leanings as well as consumer habits as those who claim to be gay. They should be counted.

WRT to those who are not engaged in the sexual act that would be the older folk who were once sexually active and thus should be counted.

Demographics intrigue me and thus why I made this thread.

I agree on affirmative action. People should be evaluated for themselves, not any group factor.
I'm kinda up in the air on hate crime laws. Any violent crime is caused by hate IMHO, but I can see how targeting someone based on a characteristic of their group can terrorize other people belonging to that group.

As far as marketing I would think disposable income would be more important than a head count. Homosexuals tend to have more disposable income than many other groups, or so I have read.