I don't believe this would be supported by psychological analysis but would admit that the object can make a difference upon whether a person would act based upon their desire to impose coercion upon others. The desire itself originates with the individual whether they act upon it or not.
Law abiding citizens that have no intent of forcing others to do something (i.e. using coercive force) are not going to be influenced by whether they have a firearm or not.
It was funny to watch the squirming when the fact was presented that we have more firearms in the US today than ten years ago while violent crime has gone down. The "logic" given what that a many factors contribute to violent crime (coercion) and, of course, primary amoung those factors is the intent of the individual. The object (firearms) has little to do with whether a person is going to exert coercion on another person (commit a violent crime against them) or not and this is reflected by the fact that while firearm ownership has increased violent crimes have gone down. Obviously the "intent of the individual" outweighs the possession of firearms when it comes to violent crimes.
If that were not the case then the arguments that "firearms increase crime" would have prevailed and we'd have more violent crime today than in the past when there were far fewer guns. It's the individual that commits the crime and not the firearm.
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Why haven't you presented some evidence to support that opinion? The evidence showing that, ceteris paribus, gun possessors are more likely to die suggests that behaviour does change
There's no binary here. No white hats versus black hats. We see, for example, higher chances of juvenile crime amongst gun owning households.Law abiding citizens that have no intent of forcing others to do something (i.e. using coercive force) are not going to be influenced by whether they have a firearm or not.
Spurious conclusion isn't entertaining. That there are multiple factors impacting on crime is darn obvious. You'd have to assume all of those factors are constant. That would be strikingly silly. Fortunately empirical analysis is able to control for these factors and isolate gun effects. That evidence doesn't agree with your 'opinion'It was funny to watch the squirming when the fact was presented that we have more firearms in the US today than ten years ago while violent crime has gone down.
The evidence says you are wrong, indicating behavioural changes that increase crime rates. You're simply ignoring the evidence because it doesn't agree with your opinion. That won't be an effective strategyThe object (firearms) has little to do with whether a person is going to exert coercion on another person (commit a violent crime against them) or not and this is reflected by the fact that while firearm ownership has increased violent crimes have gone down.
More individuals with guns=more crime. The multiple studies that I have referenced have one common ingredient: they show that you are ignoring coercion created through gun preferences and gun possessionIt's the individual that commits the crime and not the firearm.
Perhaps its a conspiracy? Perhaps I actually own all of the academic journals and I write the articles myself?
Nope! The reality is mundane: I'm trained in literature review methods and I know how to both defend or attack an argument. You fellows can do the same you know? One doesn't have to be told what to think. One doesn't have to be reliant on secondary sources providing skewed 'analysis'
You are a secondary source.
Perhaps you do not see the irony.
Just because I find your religion silly does not mean I am an atheist.
Save us both the time and refrain from clicking Reply if you are going to address me as a such.
There is no love in Fear.
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