
Originally Posted by
Reiver
No. Whilst earmarking can be a valid method, the fee isn't about redistribution or compensation. Its a market correction.
This doesn't make sense to me because imposing taxation, and a fee is a form of taxation, that increases the revenues of government merely increases the social cost. I could see a benefit in these fees being used as compensatory for victims and their families but I can't see it providing any real benefit if it merely funds government. Government is also coercive so we'd merely be replacing one form of coercion with another form of coercion. It would be a net "no-win" situation. We need a win-win situation.
Another point comes to mind. If reducing the total number of guns in society without limiting the ability of the individual to protect themself is the goal because it would result in less crime then the government would, in theory, require less revenue to combat crime. Currently we're paying for the "social costs" of firearms through taxation so is the proposal of adding fees to gun purchase also linked to reducing taxation?
The social costs is already being carried, predominately by property owners that pay property taxes which support law enforcement, and it is spread over all of the property owners. The fee seems to target the cost for this social costs on the gun owners so wouldn't linkage to a reduction in the tax burden also be requires as lower overall costs for law enforcement would be the result of this proposal? It isn't a question of off-setting revenue but instead a reduction in the cost of law enforcement resulting from a reduction in gun related crimes.
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