Jews Don’t Have a Right to Palestine

That's the way it goes.

 

None of this is relevant or meaningful.
Israel, in its current state, exists, and that will not change.

 

There hadn't been a Palestinian state for millennia. The people living in Palestine were conquered repeatedly by the Greeks, Romans, Muslims, and finally the British. The British ceded the land to the Jews as was their right as its custodians.

 

There's never been a state called "Palestine" -- Palestine is a region, like the Levant or Mesopotamia or whatnot.
Israelis - Jews, Arabs, Christians, etc - are all Palestinians.

 

Semantics dude. The point remains the same as the one you're making. Nobody has any real ancestral claim to the land, or any claim altogether. At some point in the past there was a self governing society there, but there isn't a human being living who could establish any sort of genetic link to it.

 

Israel has as much a right to exist as America, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, Argentina, Uruguay, and all other post-colonial states.

 

Opinionated gibberish with little to substantiate it.

Mod edit: Flamebait

 

America, Australia, New Zealand, Canada, Argentina, Uruguay.

all post-colonial nations created by white Euro settlers.

all have white euro majorities.

if Israel has no right to exist, than neither do they.

yet no one is demanding they go away.

 

All of Jerusalem is in Palestine.

 

Interesting how quickly this became a skin color thing.

The right to exist is irrelevant. Israel exists only because the United Kingdom was on the winning side of the Great War. The right to exist depends solely on a state's ability to maintain its existence. The Israeli government has done a good job of that thus far.

As I said, adults are talking. Please go speak to children somewhere.

 

Well there was a Palestinian state formed alongside Israel in the 1940's.

 

There might have been, had the Arabs not nixed the deal.

 

the Arabs rejected it, with rockets and missiles

 

The Arabs were never in on the deal. The British government created Jewish and Palestinian states. The Arabs didn't accept that and suffered as a result of their aggression.

 

Right. There might have been a Palestinians state next to Israel, had the Arabs accepted the deal.

 

had they accepted the deal in 1947, Palestine would be the shining star of the Middle east

 

Ah got my history wrong. Delete.

 

No. There wasn't.
The was an area called Palestine, but no state.

 

According to this morally bankrupt logic, everything the Nazis did to the Jews was right and proper.

Your sense of justice is positively twisted.

 

it was a colony/mandate territory.

 

Had the Nazi won, history would tell you today that killing the jews was the right thing to do. History is written by the victorious.

 

Quote where such a thing is acceptable per international law?

 

LOL. And what happened after that eh?

 

The claim is bunk to begin with but - interesting post in any case.

Abraham was a Sumerian - born in Ur. He went from there to the land of the Canaanites' and adopted their religious practices. The Canaanites and Israelite's were both Semitic people and there was plenty of intermarrying that went on in any case. The land of Palestine was Canaanite land.

The idea in general that owning some land 4000 years ago (in the case of the Canaanites - Semitic people) or in the case of the Jews 3000 years ago - also Semitic people - gives them some right to the land today is preposterous silliness.

Regardless - The Palestinians - being Semitic people - have exactly the same claim to the land that the Jews do - (which is none but assuming there was a valid argument on the basis of occupying some land thousands of years ago)

 

Source?

One controversial study shows Italian mDNA, not German. However, mDNA probably entered the Jewihs gene pool when women who converted to Judaism married Jews. As other studies show, Ashkenazi Jews not only originated in the Middle East, but they are genetically closer to Middle Eastern Jews than to their European hosts.

There were Jews in Europe long before the fall of the second Temple, by the way. Not so small a group. Yiddish is only one of the languages spoken by Jews in Europe throughout history, one of the two surviving languages. The other is Ladino. Yiddish itself is not quite German - it's a mix of German, Hebrew, Aramaic, Laaz, Slavic tongues.

Not all European Jews are Ashkenazi.

Your post is basically saying that only racially pure Jews would be entitled to claim Jewishness. Is there any other nation, or ethnic group, required to prove racial purity in order to be considered a nation or an ethnic group?

Oh, and there's also the not so small matter of your "Jews of the Bible" mixing with Canaanites and other non-Jews, which raises the obvious question "why was it ok for Jews of the Bible to mix with others and remain Jewish, but European Jews can't".

All underlined words are hyperlinks.