Does Religious Freedom Supercede Gender Identity?

Discussion in 'Political Opinions & Beliefs' started by TheImmortal, Feb 10, 2020.

  1. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    I didn’t say anything about them, I said something about your actions. Which btw is pretty sad lol
     
  2. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    https://founders.archives.gov/documents/Jefferson/03-06-02-0208

    “Now I will avow, that I then believed, and now believe, that those general Principles of Christianity, are as eternal and immutable, as the Existence and Attributes of God: and that those Principles of Liberty, are as unalterable as human Nature and our terrestrial, mundane System.“
     
  3. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    You’re the one asserting that other parts of the constitution supersede religious freedom. It’s incumbent upon you to source that claim.
     
  4. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    You would need to define harassment because your definition appears to be incorrect.

    Abortion is not healthcare no matter how much you want to make it so.

    Given the rate of child molestation within the homosexual community it’s less of a religious issue and more of a safety issue.
     
  5. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    Saying that doesn’t change the fact the RULING states “this is a Christian nation”
     
  6. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    But not knowing the truth is different from knowing it and not expressing it.

    We know how males and females are defined. And we have no evidence which indicates it should be defined as anything other than what their genetic sex indicates.

    The problem I have is that the argument is slightly dishonest. Meaning if I go up to a man who identifies as a woman and refer to him as a man, I’m referring to his SEX and not his gender. His gender is completely and utterly irrelevant to me. And yet the left asserts I have to address him based upon his fluid gender which, by their own definition, I can’t know unless they tell me. So now not only do I have to use a made up gender but I’m not even ALLOWED to refer to a person based on their sex for threat of possible jail time.
     
  7. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    except as I and others have repeatedly shown you, the ruling does no such thing. We are not, and never have been a Christian nation. We were set up, SPECIFICALLY, as a secular nation. That is reality.
     
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  8. Derideo_Te

    Derideo_Te Well-Known Member

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    Yet another absurd canard without any shred of credible substantiation. Homosexuals are NOT pedophiles.
     
  9. UK_archer

    UK_archer Well-Known Member

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    What level are those? Are you claiming there is a higher rate of abuse within the LGBT community than hetrosexual, care to provide a link for that.

    If you're claiming that trans people are delusional, why does religion get special dispensation? How people does it take before it becomes a religion.
     
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  10. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    Lol you quoted the decision just because you don’t like what it says doesn’t mean you can ignore it
     
  11. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    Homosexual males make up less than 3% of the total population and yet males who have sex with young boys makes up approximately 30% of all child molestation. Making them overrepresented by a factor of 10
     
  12. Derideo_Te

    Derideo_Te Well-Known Member

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    Utterly WRONG on all counts!

    Pedophiles are NOT homosexuals and you are just spouting DEBUNKED and DISCREDITED bovine excrement again.
     
  13. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    https://bjs.gov/content/pub/pdf/SOO.PDF

    Try again. I didn’t say they were all pedophiles. I said they were grossly overrepresented in regards to child molestation. Which they are.
     
    Last edited: Feb 13, 2020
  14. Derideo_Te

    Derideo_Te Well-Known Member

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    Wrong AGAIN!

    That was from 1997 and NOWHERE does it mention anything at all about homosexuals!

    You have NOTHING factual to support your BS allegations.
     
  15. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    Of course it does lol it references males who have sex with males. What do you think a homosexual is? And I’ll be happy to provide you more up to date information but the numbers are actually worse than that today. I mean are you under the impression something happened which would have changed those numbers?
     
    Last edited: Feb 13, 2020
  16. Derideo_Te

    Derideo_Te Well-Known Member

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    Thank you for establishing that you are just pulling this crap from your nether regions!

    The sex of the victim is IRRELEVANT to pedophiles.

    Homosexual relationships are with CONSENTING ADULTS!
     
  17. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    That’s patently absurd. You don’t go from being a heterosexual in adult relationships to being attracted to males with a penis because they’re under 18.

    You can spin that BS to somebody else
     
  18. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    Furthermore I’m not referring to pedophilia as that is a subjective criteria. I’m referring to child molesters. You can be a child molester and not a pedophile. Hence my usage of child molester.
     
    Last edited: Feb 13, 2020
  19. Derideo_Te

    Derideo_Te Well-Known Member

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    It is YOU that is spinning BS about homosexuals!
     
  20. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    No I provided statistical fact and you’ve provided nothing. Because you’re wrong. Homosexuals are GROSSLY overrepresented in regards to child molestation. And nothing you say can change that fact.
     
    Last edited: Feb 13, 2020
  21. Derideo_Te

    Derideo_Te Well-Known Member

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    Child molestation and pedophilia are the SAME THING!

    https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jama/article-abstract/376101

    But thanks for establishing that this is yet another area where your subject matter knowledge is woefully inadequate.
     
  22. Derideo_Te

    Derideo_Te Well-Known Member

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    Repeating your egregious debunked canards does NOT substantiate your bovine excrement about homosexuals.
     
  23. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    No they most certainly are not. A man who is not primarily attracted to children but molests a child is not a pedophile. He’s a child molester.

    To be a pedophile you have to be PRIMARILY attracted to children.
     
    Last edited: Feb 13, 2020
  24. TheImmortal

    TheImmortal Well-Known Member

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    Educate yourself so I don’t have to keep doing it for you.

    “Many in society are likely to equate Pedophilia with child molestation. They are not the same. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5)1may be contributing inadvertently to the misconception that they are the same,“

    http://jaapl.org/content/42/4/404
     
    Last edited: Feb 13, 2020
  25. HonestJoe

    HonestJoe Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    That is projecting your very specific religious beliefs on to the concept of religion in general. Anyway, by the same belief isn’t it equally possible that an otherwise good but non-religious doctor forced to perform abortions would be condemned to hell too?

    I’m struggling a bit with your wording here and I think you’re too focused on US Constitutionally focused rather on general principles. My general moral position remains fairly simple; No law should be made on the basis of religion, in favour or against it. Laws should take account of particular exceptions or requirements to laws, including where they’re religious based, as long as that doesn’t counter the point of the law.

    If it forces you in all circumstances yes and I totally think that should be avoided where-ever possible (and in the US largely has been). Of course, laws that apply only in specific circumstances (such as in particular work places), those who greatly object can at least avoid it.
     

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