Thread: Palestinians and the Greatest Political Scam of Modern Times

Originally Posted by Borat

Bingo Khalil, great job, thank you! As per your data the Arabs owned:

48.5% of 60% of the land (excluding the Negev) = 29% and
15.39% of 40% of the land (the Negev) = 6%

total arab ownership: 29% + 6% = 35%
the Arab's share of the land during the Partition 45%

CASE CLOSED

Let me rephrase this, I completely messed it up. This is what I meant:

26,323,023 dunums or (100%) of the land in Palestine, 12,766,524 dunums belonged to Arabs. Thus, 48.50% of the total lands of Palestine was under Arab ownership. Then out of the whole Negev which consists of 12,557,000 dunums of entire Palestine, 1,936,380 dunums belonged to Arabs - or 15.39% of the entire Negev was under Arab ownership, the rest of the Negev was undefined, but recognized as Arab land, because as they explained: "the whole of these lands were traditionally recognized to belong to the Bedouin tribes and ... it is unsafe to assume that all lands south of Bersheeba or East of Hebron are empty."

48.50 + 40.16% (Because the Negev was recognized as Arab land) = 88.66% of the land under Arab ownership.

Also, public lands only consisted 5.67% of entire Palestine. It is also important to point out that this 5.67% of public lands includes all unsettled land. None of the Negev except 0.02% or 2,279 dunums were Public lands. Meaning these lands were not recognized as "unsettled lands." Especially sine over 100,000 Arabs inhabited the Negev.

Sorry, I worded it wrong last time - hopefully it will be much easier to see when I give the amount of dunums (or 1/4 of a acre)

Originally Posted by Khalil

26,323,023 dunums or (100%) of the land, 12,766,524 dunums belonged to Arabs. Thus, 48.50% belonged to Arabs. Then out of the whole Negev 15.39% of the Negev was under Arab ownership, the rest of the Negev was unassigned, but recognized as Arab land, because as they explained: "the whole of these lands were traditionally recognized to belong to the Bedouin tribes and ... it is unsafe to assume that all lands south of Bersheeba or East of Hebron are empty."

48.50 + 40.16% (Because the Negev was recognized as Arab land) = 88.66% of the land.

Fine, so 48% of the land belonged to the Arabs in 1945 ( less by 1948 ) and that's about what they got during the partition. Case is still closed.


The rest is nothing more than your baseless speculations. Your attempts to "steal" the unassigned land notwithstanding, it's called "unassigned" for a reason - because it is UNASSIGNED - does not belong to anyone. Obviously the only organization that mattered - the UN considered it unassigned and gave the land without a people to a people without a land.

Originally Posted by Borat

Fine, so 48% of the land belonged to the Arabs in 1945 ( less by 1948 ) and that's about what they got during the partition. Case is still closed.


The rest is nothing more than your baseless speculations. Your attempts to "steal" the unassigned land notwithstanding, it's called "unassigned" for a reason - because it is UNASSIGNED - does not belong to anyone. Obviously the only organization that mattered - the UN considered it unassigned and gave the land without a people to a people without a land.

No you ignored what I had said. If you include ACTUAL land ownership you would find this:

48.50 + 15.39 = 63.89%

Let me explain this. The 48.50% of entire Palestine, with the Negev (40.16% of the land) as undefined. But if you include their statistics for the Negev with ownership, 1,936,380 dunums of the Negev belonged to Arabs - or 15.39%.

But the Palestine government at the time recognized the Negev as Arab land, thus it would be:

48.50 + 40.16 = 88.66%

Originally Posted by Khalil

No you ignored what I had said. If you include ACTUAL land ownership you would find this:

48.50 + 15.39 = 63.89%

Let me explain this. The 48.50% of entire Palestine, with the Negev (40.16% of the land) as undefined. But if you include their statistics for the Negev with ownership, 1,936,380 dunums of the Negev belonged to Arabs - or 15.39%.

But the Palestine government at the time recognized the Negev as Arab land, thus it would be:

48.50 + 40.16 = 88.66%

You do have problems with arithmetic. Now that you are counting the Negev separately once again:

48% of 60% of the land without the Negev is less than half of the 60% which is 29%
15% of 40% (the Negev) is about 1/7th of 40% which is about 6%

The total is 29% + 6% - 35%. You are lucky you got 45% during the partition.

And you get zero (that you invented) percent of the unassigned land because it was unassigned to you, had no owners and was vacant.

Heh, sorry I have trouble with my wording. Let me rephrase it ONCE more.

Out of entire Palestine WITH ALL THE NEGEV CONSIDERED UNDEFINED LANDS then 48.50% of the land belongs to Palestinians. But if you include the Arab land ownership of the Negev (and not the entire thing undefined) which was mentioned in the "Village Statistics 1945" then you would add an additional 15.39%.

Thus, 63.89%. But the the Palestine Government recognized the entire Negev as ARAB land. Thus, 88.66% of the land belonged to Arabs.

Originally Posted by Khalil

Heh, sorry I have trouble with my wording. Let me rephrase it ONCE more.

Muslims need to get out of North America. It isn't safe for them here.

Originally Posted by Borat

Fine, so 48% of the land belonged to the Arabs in 1945 ( less by 1948 ) and that's about what they got during the partition. Case is still closed.


The rest is nothing more than your baseless speculations. Your attempts to "steal" the unassigned land notwithstanding, it's called "unassigned" for a reason - because it is UNASSIGNED - does not belong to anyone. Obviously the only organization that mattered - the UN considered it unassigned and gave the land without a people to a people without a land.

Who cares if it is called unassigned land or not? People lived their, and all those people were Arabs!! The Israeli's still try doing this, they claim that a certain portion of land is uninhabited, even thought Arabs live their, and then feel justified in going in and demolishing their village during the night!! The fact that it is called unassigned land, doesn't make it so.

Originally Posted by Khalil

Out of entire Palestine WITH ALL THE NEGEV CONSIDERED UNDEFINED LANDS then 48.50% of the land belongs to Palestinians. But if you include the Arab land ownership of the Negev (and not the entire thing undefined) which was mentioned in the "Village Statistics 1945" then you would add an additional 15.39%.

Thus, 63.89%. But the the Palestine Government recognized the entire Negev as ARAB land. Thus, 88.66% of the land belonged to Arabs.

Arithmetic lesson #1
Even if you want to add the Negev separately, 15% of 40% is 6% (not 15%)

Arithmetic lesson #2
If the Arabs officially owned 15% of the Negev it was already included in the 48% so you are counting it twice. And they did not officially own it and the number was not included in 48% that means it was not theirs.

Your best case 48%, your worst case 35%. Either case you got as much or more than what you owned. Unassigned and public land went to the Jews which was the idea behind giving a land without a people to a people without a land in the first place.

Originally Posted by Borat

Arithmetic lesson #1
Even if you want to add the Negev separately, 15% of 40% is 6% (not 15%)

Arithmetic lesson #2
If the Arabs officially owned 15% of the Negev it was already included in the 48% so you are counting it twice. And they did not officially own it and the number was not included in 48% that means it was not theirs.

Your best case 48%, your worst case 35%. Either case you got as much or more than what you owned. Unassigned and public land went to the Jews which was the idea behind giving a land without a people to a people without a land in the first place.

Except of course that was zionist propaganda, and objectively untrue!!