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Well, I think we can assume that by all men he meant men and women.
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ummm...why exactly do you think we can assume that?
I mean...women couldnt own land right? They couldnt vote, right? Would it be safe to assume then that the men of that time did not consider them equals?
What leads you to believe that when they said "all men" they meant women too?
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This is a very common grammatical things.
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It is
NOW. Who says it was back then?
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Manking means women and men.
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So did they mean all minorities too? If not, why?
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And I read and hear all the time in books and such from the 15th century on to this point people everywhere treating the word men as meaning both sexes.
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Good for you. You are not the final interpreter though. You dont get to define what they "really" meant.