Can we explain the need for the Higgs boson?
Let me put forward my theory here, and please indicate if you agree or disagree.
Mass (m, inertial) of anything is a fictive quantity to assign a linear relationship between 2 measurable quantities, force (F), and acceleration (a), as introduced by Newton in the form of m = F/a. The force F over the accelerational space (s) will appear as measured energy E = F * s. This way what we are measuring is E = m * v^2 (after combining the 2 equations), and v is a velocity v = sqrt(a * s) that is characteristic to this energy and is measured independently.
If we do these measurements by electromagnetic methods, then we find E = m * c^2 in the situation where the object with the mass m is at rest relative to the observer (the famous Einstein formula, c is the speed of light). If the mass m and the observer move relative to each other, then we reduce away from the c, and if the relative speed is c, then we get E = m * 0 = 0.
But ... experimentally, this energy is not measured (interpolated) to be zero! This means, that by classic physical models, we expect matter to pass across itself like ghosts when it is at the speed of light, and thereby "display" its mass as a proportionality between its deceleration and "impact force" at lower speeds. The problem is that this expectation is disproved by all experiments in history.
Higgs's idea is to explain that non-zero energy at the speed of light in form of a co-resonance (in the language of quantum mathematics) or "particle" in the language of engineering physics. By plugging this fictive particle into the explanation of our measurements, we have just invented a particle that causes the proportionality between force and acceleration, that is creates mass for everything.
If this fictive Higgs boson exists (and proves not to be that fictive any more), then it introduces a residual speed "v", a slow-down, at the speed of light "c", which can be calculated using the energy E measured and interpolated to the speed of light "c": E(c) = m(0)*v^2/sqrt(1-v^2/c^2) where m(0) is the mass at rest and the sqrt(...) is the relativistic term. What the CERN guys claim is, that their measurements give an indication of this speed "v" above the margin of error.
I think this measurement is believable, considering the atto-second accuracy of their time-coincidence measuring equipment. The statistics of the repeat experiments will provide the proof.