2nd Amendment: Has it changed since 1789?

In plain language (once again) it states prior to that "A well regulated militia being necessary..." clearly telling everyone WHY that "right of the people" is necessary and putting that "right" in the perspective OF a well regulated militia.

 

...the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.
Not the right of the state
Not the right of the militia
Not the right of the people in the militia
But, the right of the people.

"The citizen", as found in US v Miller

 

And again (and again and again and again) you try to ignore the fact that the very same sentence you keep quoting only part of...BEGAN with

"A Well Regulated Militia being necessary..."

And round and round we go....wheeeeee

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You keep saying it...but nothing you produce accounts for the phrase "A well regulated militia being necessary..."

 

Because you refuse to understand the fact that "the militia clause" does not place a limit on anything that follows, as been explained to you several times.
That is, you choose to be wrong.

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You know this statement is false; you know this has been explained several times, without anything resembling a cogent response in return.

 

Well regulated militia of the United States get their, wellness of regulation, through that prescription, from our federal Congress.

The unorganized militia is subject to State laws regarding gun control, simply for not being well regulated.

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Yes; Congress has the power to prescribe, wellness of regulation, for the militia of the United States.

 

You have nothing but appeals to ignorance of the law.

The People are the Militia. You are either, well regulated or unorganized. It really is that simple, except to gun lovers and the right.

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Natural rights are secured in State Constitutions, not our Second Amendment.

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The People are the Militia. The People are either, well regulated or not; there is no other category for the People who are the Militia of the United States.

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Projecting much? the first clause clarifies which Persons of the People may not be Infringed when keeping and bearing Arms for their State or the Union.

 

It clearly tells everyone why it was necessary to be in the Constitution rather than one of the other innumerable rights that the founders did not feel were necessary to call out.

 

If they had wanted that, they would have written "THE Militia, well-regulated by Congress" not just "A militia." The plain wording puts no limits on who may form, or regulate, a militia.

It also does not say that rights may be infringed if a militia is unorganized.

Again, it doesn't say "THE militia." That would have defeated the entire purpose of the 2nd Amendment since a government militia is not necessary for the security of a free state. In fact, they are generally the people who hold up an unfree state.

 

Only illegals appeal to ignorance of the law for personal profit and gain.

That is the federal militia of the United States.

States have their own criteria, and power.

 

Because you refuse to understand the fact that "the militia clause" does not place a limit on anything that follows, as been explained to you several times.
That is, you choose to be wrong.

Why in the hell would I "understand" something that makes no sense?

 

Are you still babbling on about fantasies of which you can show no statute, case law or maybe even a word or two from the founding fathers instead of your personal opinion as to the meaning of the Constitution?

 

dude; i cited our supreme law of the land. all y'all have is hearsay and soothsay.

 

Hearsay and soothsay??? Word salads is what they call your absolute nonsense. When in the Hell did YOU become the supreme law of the land? You've gone from ridiculous to have delusions of grandeur. All you have ever cited is your personal opinion. You even rewrite what little law you attempt to cite so that the words agree with whatever horse manure you're peddling.

 

i cited our supreme law of the land.

you only have fallacy as that form of appeal to ignorance of the law, in open court.

 

"Illegals"? Illegal what? You're going way off on a tangent here.

Then why doesn't it say "the FEDERAL" or "the US Militia"? It says "a militia". You are reading all sorts of words into the 2nd amendment that simply do not exist.

 

Ladies and Gentlemen:

Welcome to Amerika. It is the great land where the laws and the words of our founders are fallacy, hearsay, and "soothsay." The only real word of truth is danielpalos, who obviously has cornered the market on what America is all about.

danielpalos has declared that his words are the supreme law of the land. And he states that no matter how many facts and laws are presented we are only appealing to his ignorance of the law in his open court on this forum.

The only reply we can give this guy is that when the last shovel of dirt is thrown over his grave, MILLIONS of Americans will have firearms and most of those will believe in the Liberty and Freedom that danielpalos despises so much.

 

simply kettles calling pots, illegal, dear. it is why the (semi-religious) right can be, literally, so incredible, when professing their alleged subscription to any form of "gospel Truth".

The Militia of the United States is the federal militia. All other militias are State or territorial militias.

What does the incredible and fantastical, right wing believe it means to be the organized militia of the United States?

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nothing but diversion and repeal; as that form of fallacy from the right. how, politics as usual for them.

 

It makes sense to you and everyone else - you simply refuse to accept it.
That is, you choose to make statements you know are not true, and you choose to be wrong.

 

Do you even know what a fallacy is? Are you a gay blade? I've explained that I'm not your "dear." So, between your belief that you are God and trying to make gay overtures to me, I'm not sure there is much more for you and I to discuss.

FEDERAL statutes call for a militia that is NOT a part of the state or federal militias. That has been upheld by all our courts and so once again you fail. IF you were right, there would be no part of the citizenry with privately held weapons. But, the fact is the people still retain the Right to keep and bear Arms because the whole people constitute the unorganized militia.

 

Federal Courts are required to uphold federal laws; 10USC311 is a federal statute.

 

This verbatim from the statute that danielpalos cites:

(b) The classes of the militia are—
(1) the organized militia, which consists of the National Guard and the Naval Militia; and
(2) the unorganized militia, which consists of the members of the militia who are not members of the National Guard or the Naval Militia.

So, I'm not a part of the regular armed forces; not in the National Guard or Reserves nor the Naval Militia - so I guess the law defines me as unorganized militia with a Right to keep and bear Arms as per the Second Amendment. Now that we have that all cleared up, maybe danielpalos will give it a rest.

 

if you stop feeding the troll, it will go away.

 

nope; it says well regulated militia not the unorganized militia is necessary. Your civil rights come from State Constitutions via Due Process through the recognition of "natural rights".

 

The "definitions" provided...came 120 years after the Constitution

So much for "strict constructonalist"

 

How many times do we have to prove that is a freaking LIE? How many? Cite your sources? And, by the way, your lying arse never told us how many times you've been in court. How many cases have you won? What were they about? OR, are you just blowing smoke because you crave attention?

You keep trying to tweak your responses to prove points that simply don't exist. I'd bet dollars against doughnuts that you are the kind of guy that enjoys being spanked and humiliated. It's the only thing that makes sense. You keep coming back, post after post with what has been described as word salads by other posters. It's a little bit of everything, but it's meaningless.