If I'm wrong somewhere, please explain rather than hint. Did you disprove that after adjusting for homicide rate Blacks are as or more likely to be killed by police officers than Whites?
Actually, since there is NO actual supporting data, I don't know exactly how this "adjustment" was actually constructed. Do you? OTOH, perhaps you can explain even after the "adjustment" the conclusion of Prof. Moskos. This conclusion confirms that it is far more likely that a black man will be shot and killed by police than a white man. Approximately 3.4 times as likely as a matter of fact.
Obviously the per capita deaths of blacks aren't going to change when you factor in black homicide. Why would you think they would? If you establish white homicide rate as a baseline, then police seem to be killing disproportionately more whites than they should based on blacks killed by police. Edit: I think the problem is your inability to comprehend simple statistics. Further edit: The article even succinctly explains the data for even the most innumerate to understand:
What Bernie is really saying is that black votes matter. If he does not play along he will not get the votes.
