NIH recognizes LGBTQ community as 'health disparity population'

Thank you for taking the bait. From the US National Library of Medicine.

Health status disparities refer to the variation in rates of disease occurrence and disabilities between socioeconomic and/or geographically defined population groups

https://www.nlm.nih.gov/hsrinfo/disparities.html

So once again you are incorrect that health disparities are limited to race and ethnic groups. It should have been obvious what I was doing and you still missed it. Did you really think a term as broad as that would only relate to race and ethnic groups when health issues effect everyone?

So yes it absolutely addresses gay men as a socioeconomic group or the LGBT community.

Because it is the primary sex for gay men. Your ignorance or more accurately your denial is truly laughable.

From the CDC:

Gay and bisexual men accounted for 83% (29,41 of the estimated new HIV diagnoses among all males aged 13 and older and 67% of the total estimated new diagnoses in the United States.

https://www.cdc.gov/hiv/group/msm/

So once again your denial is beyond pathetic unless you want to show everyone here any real scientific or social study that claims anal sex is not the primary sex for gay men. Go ahead. Love to see it.

I'll say it again. No one cares what you personally do as a gay man. But as a group, gay men have anal sex more than any other group. Period. Your denial by referring to your own unproven sexual lifestyle is truly ridiculous.

Its obvious you are since you still deny anal sex is primarily practiced by gay men.

Then why do gay men suffer more from STDs if not for anal sex which has already been proven to be the riskiest sex for STDs? Go ahead, love to hear you try and explain that.

Then name them. All you do is speak in generalities without a shred of evidence to support your laughable claim that AIDS and STDs isn't primarily contracted for gay men through anal sex.

And the CDC backs me once again:

Most gay and bisexual men acquire HIV through having anal sex with an HIV-positive person without using a condom or without taking daily medicine to prevent HIV called pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) or without their partner taking medicine to treat HIV called antiretroviral therapy (ART).

To someone who denies the basic proven facts I'm sure you see it that way.

I accept your inability to defend your argument.

Your personal sexual antics are irrelevant to the point being made but taking the odds, yeah I would bet the farm you practice anal sex as sure as I would bet the farm a heterosexual couple has sexual intercourse.

[quoite]If I were to truthfully affirm that I don't participate in anal sex (despite being a married gay man), could I have any reasonable expectation that 1) you would believe me (doubtful - you've pretty much already indicated that you don't/won't, so what would be the point of me telling you that truth?); 2) Would it shut you up? Would it be the end of the matter? Or should I expect a barrage of additional questions about my sex life? I'm guessing the answers to those questions are 'no', 'no', and 'yes'. [/quote]

LOL Considering your inability to admit basic facts about anal sex, STDs aids and gay men's sexual practices as a group what basis have you set up for trusting anything you claim that cannot be verified?

And you my friend were the one who brought up your own personal sexual preference not me. I'm simply using it to exploit the gaping holes in your argument.

Yes because you have provide no basis for trust when you deny basic facts of the CDC.

LOL And you know this how? Talk about hypocrisy. You just chastised me for my lack of personal knowledge of your own sexual positions and you presume to assume to know the sexual antics for all heterosexuals? No nothing is absolute which is why I never said all gay men or all heterosexual people anything. You devised that strawman but as a group, absoltuely gay men perform more anal sex than any other group as I proved and of course heterosexual couples engage in heterosexuyal sex.

Can you at least be honest just for a second and admit that factual reality? Is that possible for you?

Then produce any study, ANY study that backs up that laughable personal assertion that anal sex is not performed per capita more by gay men. And please don't insult anyone here by citing a gay advocate group or poll. A true scientific study. Let's see it.

Don't wait for the translation, answer me now.

Then stop denying proven facts and trying to use your own personal claims as factual evidence.

 

lol at you still tirading after 5 days... Obamacare has been a complete failure, and we're still short of implementing all of it, imagine if the cadillac tax was implemented for this election cycle, instead of delayed years, AGAIN... now it won't come up until the next election cycle... gee I wonder whats going to happen by then... I know I know you don't like being called liberals, you feel its an insult, it is, but its your own choosing for being a liberal... here is some liberal reading material for you below...

http://www.vox.com/2016/4/21/11451378/smug-american-liberalism

I will await your 50 quote reply to how smug liberalism doesn't apply to you or Obamacare or the man on the moon... looks like a duck, quacks like a duck, you claim its a turtle... eyeroll...

 

What's obvious is that you're trying to create a false narrative, based on pretending I said something that I didn't.

I never said that health disparities are limited to race and ethnic groups. I said the "risk of gay male sex" isn't the equivalent of racial and ethnic groups. We'll witness more of your dishonesty below:

This was the statement of yours that I was addressing:

(emphasis added)

Just as "the risk of gay male sex" is not the equivalent of a racial or ethnic group. The "risk of gay male sex" is not "a socioeconomic group or the LGBT community".

The source of our disagreement hasn't changed. It's still your negative obsession with what you imagine about gay men's sex lives.

If people learn nothing else from this discussion, let this be the takeaway: "LGBT" is NOT a synonym for "gay men". It stands for lesbians, gay men, bisexuals, and transgender individuals. It is not a singular group, but a coalition of groups.

And quite frankly, I take issue with them being all lumped in together as a "health disparity group". I don't think we should just assume that all of the included groups necessarily experience health disparity for the exact same reasons. There may be a common thread that runs through them, but whether or not it's the main cause of disparity for all of these groups shouldn't be assumed.

Nope. Your misinterpretation of the stats that followed is not persuasive:

The problem? While anal sex may have been the primary vector for infection among those who are, that doesn't necessarily make it "the primary sex of gay men". You're pretending the stat tells us something that it actually doesn't. The fact remains that the majority of gay men are not infected with HIV. Moreover, the CDC is concerned with controlling disease, not the sex lives of healthy gay men.

Trying to spin those stats as saying something more than they actually do tells us that you have an agenda. And it's yet another example of your dishonesty.

Since you haven't shown us "a real scientific or social study that claims anal sex is the primary sex for gay men", I don't feel any obligation to accommodate this demand.

The CDC is of no help in this. Their report stats only give separate percentages for specific behaviors with the opposite sex; all same-sex activity of any kind is lumped in together in their statistical tables.

And yet you haven't been able to reference "a real scientific or social study" that says so. All you have is conjecture based on vectors for HIV transmission - which tells you nothing about the majority of gay men who aren't infected and their sexual practices.

"primarily practiced by gay men" isn't the same thing as it being the "primary practice of gay men". Goal post moving noted.

Meanwhile, the CDC does report that 42% of men who report being attracted exclusively to the opposite sex have had anal sex with an opposite-sex partner.

Let us know when you find a similarly credible source that tells you the percentage for gay men who have had anal sex with a person of the same-sex; and not only "at any time in one's life", but with statistics on it indeed being their primary behavior. If those studies exist, they seem to be quite elusive.

Would study of the cause not be among the purposes for designating "LGBT" as a "health disparity group"? Seems you wish to put the cart before the horse, with a foregone conclusion based on your own bias.

More dishonesty. I've never made a claim that AIDS isn't primarily contracted by gay men through anal sex. I believe you'll find the CDC's stats say that is the primary vector. Still doesn't mean gay sex = anal sex.

Backs you on that singular fact, which I never even disputed. I'm not responsible for anyone's dodgy (or biased) reading comprehension.

Well, all we see you providing is an extrapolation of unproven "fact" (as in, BS) from basic proven facts - an extrapolation that lines up with your obvious bias about gay men and about their sex lives.

I am not surprised by such posturing on your part.

What you would bet in favor of your own bias is irrelevant to the reality of the situation.

In other words, you've confirmed that nothing I say on the subject matters at all - you'll stick with your extrapolated BS and dishonest portrayals.

Not doing much of a job, since all you've apparently got is dishonest misrepresentation of my positions.

Which I haven't done. The trouble is not the CDC, but you're dishonest attempts to make those stats about sick people say something they don't about healthy people.

More dishonesty. You're the one asking us to join you in the assumption that all heterosexuals practice sexual intercourse (by which I assume you meant vaginal intercourse.) I'm saying that's not a valid assumption to make. It doesn not take into account couples who have to adopt other means of sexual expression due to health issues that make vaginal intercourse painful, impossible, or inadvisable.

YOU are the one pretending that you know all sorts of things about entire groups of people, not me.

"not absolute" followed by "as a group" attempt at plausible deniability noted.

And no, you didn't prove that "absoltuely gay men perform more anal sex than any other group".

On the occasion that you happen to state a factual reality, I will acknowledge it, as I already have. But I'm not going to affirm BS.

So we've gone from gay sex = anal sex (as in the primary form sexual expression practiced by gay men, to anal sex merely being more common among gay men. Moving of the goal posts once again noted.

You're the one asserting that anal sex is the primary practice of gay men. You have not supported that with "a true scientific study". You've attempted to subsitute HIV stats in place of one, but they don't say what you want us to think they say.

I will be the one to choose what I answer, and when I answer it.

Repetition.

 

Thanks for affirming once again that your purpose here is to derail a thread about a "health disparity group" into a discussion about 'Obamacare'.

Too bad for you that I'm not going to give that any further accommodation.

 

my entire point still stands, just because you can't choke it down does not invalidate it, so like I said, either there is no health disparity because Obamacare solved the problem, or there is a health disparity and Obamacare is a failure... you decide which one you want to stick to... your tirades are boring...

the reason why you won't give me further "accommodation" is because you don't want to admit Obamacare is a failure, you cling to defending it like Hillary... enjoy the 25% rise in premiums, and pass the message along to all those in your health disparity group, they may want to vote against "Hillamacare" this election...

 

Your repetition is tedious and boring.

I've no obligation to choose between this false dichotomy, either. There is a health disparity, but that doesn't necessarily have anything to do with 'Obamacare'; if it's a factor, that's something that would likely be reflected in the results from studying all the factors involved in the disparity.

BS. I haven't defended it. I just don't agree with your obviously biased assessment that it's a "complete failure". More people have health insurance than did before. That hardly qualifies as failure. But there are problems with it (the mandate, for one, rising premiums for another, people left uncovered due to their inability to pay as a third.)

As for Hillary, I don't give an expletive deleted.

I don't use 'Obamacare' - I have health coverage through my employer.

Now, we are done, because I'm not going to revisit all of this again, and you clearly have nothing new to offer.

 

yawwwnnnn still tirading I see, and still "accommodating" me I see, and still denying and deflecting I see... Hillamacare has been a failure or a success, if its a success there is no health disparity, if there is a health disparity its a failure... enjoy your cup of cold soup and choke it down because those are the only two logical arguments...

P.S. I notice you chose to measure success by how many more people had insurance, didn't YOU make the argument before insurance isn't healthcare to support this notion there is still a health disparity... choking on your own statements again I see, can't muster up anything to support it, defeating it by your own measurements, lol...