How did it "work" when none of the existing "assault weapons" were banned or confiscated, and these rifles were available off the shelf for the entire decade of the ban? How many of the "gun massacres" were with "assault weapons"? How many "gun massacres" with "assault weapons" were there from the first civilian sale of AR-15s through through 1984? How many "gun massacres" were there with "assault weapons" from 1945 to 1984, as the US government started selling military surplus, magazine fed, intermediate caliber semiautomatic carbines to US civilians right after WWII?
Revolvers? Note that the 8 shots in one second with a revolver is faster than the same trained shooter using an AR-15. 19th century firearms?
When it comes to the matter of so-called "assault weapons" intellectual honesty is something very difficult to find anywhere, what with the definition being both greatly and rapidly expanded to encompass so many firearms on the flimsiest of reasoning and qualification. When even a common service handgun qualifies, the term no longer holds any legitimate meaning.
That doesn't make sense since any and all currently owned "assault" weapons weren't confiscated when the "ban" went into effect. In other words, there were still plenty of "assault" weapons available for use. Not to mention, the ban wasn't actually a full on ban. Meaning, anyone could still buy an AR-15 as long as it didn't have a collapsible butt stock, pistol grip, bayonet mount, flash suppressor, or grenade launcher mount.
The man/woman/alphabet from Australia obviously has no concept of what the "assault weapon" ban was or what it did to change the physical shape in order to allow it to comply with this law that did nothing. It is always fun to be lectured to by someone who is quite probably jealous of the constitutional rights we citizens have living in America.
You speak from abject ignorance or blatant dishonesty - the 1994 AWB did not make a difference because it could not make a difference.