"The reason why Germany invaded Poland was ..... <<MOD WARNING>>

If "yes",,,,,,then why "allies" did not helped to Poland when Germany began to smash Poland?

Sorry, Jazz, ,,,,,but with all due respect to you this is not the answer.

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1) Give us your interpretation , pleas.
2) In my “interpretation” I added a few sentences for humor. I agree. The humor was not in the situation in September 1939 .
If we'll remove the sense of humor, we get that.

Replicas of Poland - is my "arguments".
Replicas of the "allies" - it's your "arguments".

What could be said Chamberlain, Daladier and Polish President Mostsitssky in September 1939?

Poland requested assistance. What else?
What help could ask Poland? - Just help of the aviation, since the mobilization was not yet done.

They certainly talked the same. In any case, within the meaning of.
Basically, I did not invent anything.


So what? You don’t like your "arguments"? ( it is marked in bold).
Why you don't like your arguments?

 

I don't have an interpretation.

.
With or without the humour; you're still a clown.

I have explained this to you ad infinitum. You've simply refused to acknowledge it.

Yes you have.

They aren't my arguments even though you have taken liberties with my statements

Why you don't you like reality?

 

O.k., you are on your own finding the answer that suits you!

 

For those of us that can actually comprehend the English language.

The lack of support from Britain in regard to the invasion of Poland in 1939 is due to the following reasons.

Naval:

. It wasn't possible to send ships to the Baltic sea because of the proximity to German naval bases as well as coastal guns and the Kreigsmarine itself.

Land:

.The British Expeditionary Force which numbered 158,000 had only completed transportation from the UK to France five weeks into the war by which time Poland had been defeated.
.Britain lacked sufficient equipment for offensive actions let alone defensive ones. For example around 700 tanks accompanied the BEF with 200 of which being obsolete and only a handful were Matilda II's.

Aerial:

. The RAF did not have a sufficient number of bombers to actually cause any significant damage and were very inaccurate. So even if in the even in the event that a single bomber formation could penetrate enemy air defences it would still not be able to destroy significant infrastructure.
. It would also be illegal to bomb civilian infrastructure unless it was defended as defined by the Hague rules

British support did involve an attempt to raid the port of Willhelmshaven but were intercepted and suffered badly.
Britain did provide financial support
And contrary to the perception that Britain and Poland were in a formal alliance.

Below in an excerpt from wikipedia and is a statement from Neville Chamberlain.

"... in the event of any action which clearly threatened Polish independence, and which the Polish Government accordingly considered it vital to resist with their national forces, His Majesty's Government would feel themselves bound at once to lend the Polish Government all support in their power. They have given the Polish Government an assurance to this effect. "

The treaty articles in which the capacity of military support is not expressly mentioned.
Legally both Britain and France fulfilled their obligations.

This is a guarantee of support. Not an alliance.

 

I already found it and you know it.
But your post # 132 is not worth a penny.

http://www.politicalforum.com/showthread.php?t=470839&page=14&p=1066642452#post1066642452

 

My Moving from the imbecile to the clown - it is a progress.
All crimes are committed with a solemn expression on the face.

This is an exception and it is only in the movies.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lEhXiTOHF4E

Oh yeah. This is for me. I understand even what you did not write.
222222222222

It was really "in their power" - The Bombing to strengthening of "West wall" &#8211;
Consequently, the "allies" on the terms of the contract were to bomb the "Westwall".

The Treaty says nothing about the &#8194;avail (&#8194;dividend) of the help.
Consequently, the "allies" on the terms of the contract were to bomb the "Westwall".
without thinking about the possible futility.

&#8220;all support in their power&#8221; - This means: military and financial and any other.

No. Even legally Britain and France didn&#8217;t failed their obligations to Poland. They didn&#8217;t even attempted to accomplish this.

/

 

No its not.

That doesn't even make sense. Its quite clear that your comprehension of English is abysmal.

No it was for reasons for which I have already explained. You would know this if you could read.

Well that's a lie.

So?

You do know what the Siegfried line is don't you?

Exactly.

Thank you for finally agreeing

I think you will find they did as I have proven multiple times

 

Ha, not worth a penny, eh? I'll show you!:

"Poland wants war with Germany and Germany will not be able to avoid it even if she wants to." (Polish Marshal Rydz-Smigly as reported in the Daily Mail, August 6th, 1939​

So, Hitler could stand on his head and wiggle his toes, it wouldn't have mattered one iota! He tried numerous times to negotiate, making very fair and generous offers regards the Corridor. But no! The Poles were too cocky and counted on the allies for protection. And as I said in an earlier post it was Roosevelt who wanted war to divert from his problems; he urged the European allies not to give Germany any more favors by peaceful negotiations.

Hitler complained to "The League of Nations" about Poland"s atrocities against the German minority living in Poland after WWI.
They never responded.

When the Germans marched into Poland on September 1st, 1939, they found grizzly evidence of brutal murders and misshandlings.


Excerpt:

The historical record, as represented by the German government at the time, on Bromberg "Bloody Sunday" and related incidents -- 58,000 claimed dead or missing by Feb 1940.*

The German invasion was Sep 1939, but it's important to understand that many of the outrages had preceded the German invasion. This was proved by the amount of decomposition of the bodies.

Thus, these atrocities cannot be excused simply as reprisals for the German invasion (which would be wrong anyway). They included 19 year-old girls with their faces smashed, amputations, disembowelments, shot thru' the eye, death-trauma births, you name it.

Poles had been merrily slaughtering anything or anybody German since at least as early as April 1939, with smaller incidents stretching back to the close of WW I -- you haven't been told that by the Mass Media, or the fact that these atrocities were one of the main causes for the German invasion of Poland, something that was meant by the Germans to be a local solution to a local problem. Germany had already done the "right thing" by protesting in writing to the League of Nations literally dozens of times. The League of Nations did nothing, yet the problem had to be solved.


http://www.jrbooksonline.com/polish_atrocities.htm
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Which other country would have tolerated such treatment of its citizens?
Are you still blaming Germany for the Second WW?

 

Question former.

If Roosevelt, Churchill and Daladier wanted -" not to give Germany any more favors by peaceful negotiations".
.......then why they did not helped to Poland when Germany began to smash Poland?

There is only one answer: "The Allies wanted to Hitler defeated and captured Poland."

.
PS
and Polish general and Hitler could say anything. It does not matter.

 

Consequently, the "allies" on the terms of the contract were to bomb the "Westwall".
without thinking about the possible futility

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Siegfried_Line

Yes. This is a serious strengthening. It is why the "allies" must be bombing and shelling by heavy artillery the Siegfried line.(If they were planning to help Poland

)

 

Nothing that you have written makes sense in English

 

O.k., maybe you can tell me WHY they wanted Hitler to smash Poland?

 

They wanted to destroy the Soviet Russia by Hitler's hands.
Hitler capture the Chekh and Hitler capture the Poland - it is two strokes in the game of Britain.

 

Aha... is that what they were planning?
BUT why would they then later help Russia to defeat Hitler?
Why not give Hitler a free hand to destroy Russia?
Please, explain this to me.

 

Britain did not helped for Russia.
Britain helped for Britain.
If Hitler had won Russia, then Britain would not have chance against Germany. Churchill would have been forced to emigrate to the United States.

 

You are mistaken! Britain did so help Russia! Here is proof:

PQ 17 was the code name for an Allied Second World War convoy in the Arctic Ocean. In July 1942, the Arctic convoys suffered a significant defeat when Convoy PQ 17 lost 24 of its 35 merchant ships during a series of heavy enemy daylight attacks which lasted a week.
On 27 June, the ships sailed eastbound from Hvalfjord, Iceland for the port of Arkhangelsk, Soviet Union.
The convoy was the first joint Anglo-American naval operation under British command in the war.


Escorts and merchant ships at Hvalfjord May 1942 before the sailing of Convoy PQ 17.

Read more here:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convoy_PQ_17

 

It was a help for Britain too. ............for Britain on the primarily.

 

RUS, YOU are mistaken! You are obsessed with Mein Kampf! Get real and think logical!!
Pat Buchanan writes :

http://buchanan.org/blog/did-hitler-want-war-2068
-----------
Adolf Hitler was not the monster or scumbag or greatest evil as some propagandists call him.

The victors write the history and make sure all the blame goes to the loser.
The one to blame for the war is Britain.

 

RUS's arguments are quite removed from reality and if I didn't know better then I would say he lives on Mars

All evidence to the contrary

Which was certainly justified

Well that really is a skewed conclusion

 

don't you mean skewered?

 

No and I don't know how skewered would express my sentiments either

http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/skew

 

Let's Get real and think logical.

Hitler did not say that he "out to conquer the world ".
Hitler spoke only about the territory of Russia. ( in Mein Kampf.)

For safety. Perhaps he was counting on the "help" of Britain, but was not 100% sure.
Perhaps Hitler thought the help of Britain will be more good, if the Siegfried Line will be "more good".

Hitler did not have the resources to do so.
Hitler did not say that he "out to conquer the world ". ( in Mein Kampf.)

Hitler repeated many times (( in Mein Kampf.) &#8230;.. that "the UK it is an ally of Germany."

I added these words.
As of September 1938 , Hitler did not even have a border with Russia too.
"Allies" have helped him solve this problem. They gave Him the Poland ( as the Czech ).

Hitler did what he had planned in Mein Kampf.

 

You came down from Mars to Earth, and you think everything is strange.

Do not be afraid. I will help you to adapt.Let's turn on logical thinking.

Let's assume that Britain wanted to help Poland, but could not. (I said "assume")
Allies would knew that they will can't help to Poland. For what purpose they had promised this assistance?

.

 

I'm pretty sure I was born and raised on Earth.

Not necessary

We have been over this and your arguments failed to be sustainable
.