I most certainly do. I have the right to authorize the government to do a great many things that would be illegal if I did them
So let me get this straight. Let's say that you have no right to do something, and I have no right to do it either. Nobody has a right to do that thing. But you're saying that because you ask me to do it, I now have the right to do it. How does that work exactly?
You only have the right to authorize another person to do it? But how does that person acquire a special right that none of us have just because you "authorize" them? What makes that particular person special?
Hm, so if I authorize you to kill my neighbor, you suddenly have the right to do so? When none of us have that right ourselves?
I assume you hold that we all have the same rights. If I can't authorize you to kill my neighbor, what about this other person gives him the right to kill my neighbor if I authorize him instead of you? What makes him different from you?
We do not all have the same rights. Children do not have the same rights as adults, old people do not have the right to be police officers or fireman, stupid people do not have the right to get into medical school, short people do not have the right to be in the NBA.....etc
Oh, so are you arguing that some people have the right to kill their neighbor while other people don't have this right?
If I can't authorize you to kill my neighbor, what about this other person, this "agent of the state", (whatever that means) gives him the right to kill my neighbor if I authorize him instead of you? What makes him different from you?
We decide he has these rights and we don't. We empower him with these rights which we can also take away at any time.
So if I decide you have the right to kill my neighbor you then have the right to kill my neighbor? If I empower you with the right to kill my neighbor you actually have the right to kill my neighbor?
Vote? So if two of of three people decide you have the right to kill my neighbor then you have that right?
Ok Let's discuss the scenario you presented. If you would like a civilian to be authorized to kill another civilian (for no good reason that you have stated) then you would likely need to create a federal law. Quite possibly you might need to amend the constitution. So millions and millions of votes would be required.
So if a lot of people write down instructions then someone acquires the right to kill other people? How does that work?
sort of like allowing the federal government to restrict privately owned guns there should have been a constitutional amendment rather than some dishonest POS justices pretending that the commerce clause allowed the congress to crap all over the bill of rights
That's not the scenario I presented. The scenario I presented was: If two of of three people decide you have the right to kill my neighbor then you have that right? So...?