So the government decides who has rights? Individual rights actually don't exist. That's an interesting constitution!
Outright banning arms. The federal government can and does restrict them. And this is perfectly constitutional.
Well except for the fact that the 2nd amendment prohibits the infringement of the right to keep and bear arms. You know what "shall not" means, right?
I don't have to try again. You were given the correct answer. I suggest you actually read a Supreme Court ruling on the matters. DC v Hellar is a great place to start.
Such does not mean that such restrictions are either legal, or pass constitutional muster. Rights cannot be restricted for the simple purpose of ensuring that they are restricted, nor can they be restricted simply because government wishes to do so.
Of course. Show me a restriction currently in place that has been ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.
If it had been ruled unconstitutional, it would no longer be in place, would it? If they haven't been ruled on, then they are simply in place awaiting such a ruling. Would a ban on "bearable arms" "in common use for lawful purposes" be unconstitutional? If a ruling based on "most useful to the miltary" can be created, is the any firearm that can't be considered "most useful to the military", given the mission of the military?
"Presumed" doesn't mean actually Constitutional, does it? The presumption of Constitutionality is also not held in all cases. http://volokh.com/2011/06/30/more-on-the-presumption-of-constitutionality/
"Presumed" constitutional. There would be no reason to review them otherwise. Suppose one state says open carry is the law and concealed carry is against the law, and an adjoining state says that open carry is against the law and concealed carry is legal. Can conflicting laws both be Constitutional?