"The reason why Germany invaded Poland was ..... <<MOD WARNING>>

Discussion in 'History & Past Politicians' started by RUS, Aug 16, 2016.

  1. unbiased institute

    unbiased institute Member

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    What? I wasn't talking about the range of the air force.
    Interesting how you omitted payload and production numbers
    Do you honestly believe that its the same thing?
    Unbelievable
    You clearly don't know what you are talking about :wink:
     
  2. unbiased institute

    unbiased institute Member

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    So?
    What are you talking about?
    I just told you. Its considerable harder because you have to penetrate deep into enemy territory against a superior force using highly inaccurate bomb sights which are so inaccurate that its estimated that only 5% of ordnance actually hit their targets and that only improved with the use of Norden bombsights which improved it to around 20%.
    So yes it is extremely difficult
    That its entirely your own opinion even if it is illogical.
    What?
    Well no its not.
    In fact your entire position is fascicle at best
    .
     
  3. Jazz

    Jazz Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Have I ever found an eye opener!!!

    Poland and Falsifications of Polish History

    The author, Else Loeser, introduces herself:
    I would like to begin with a few remarks about myself personally, for the purpose of explaining why I am so familiar with circumstances in Poland.

    I was born and grew up in former Congress Poland, which was, at that time, annexed to Czarist Russia. Both my own experiences, and those of my forefathers, date back to the period prior to the First World War. I learned a great deal from reports from my parents and grandparents, and much from my own experience. My family only settled in Bromberg, West Prussia after the First World War. Many thousands of German families unwilling to live in a Polish state following the restoration of Poland did the same at that time, attempting to reach the German Reich by moving to territory granted to Germany by plebiscite. After the first territories subjected to plebiscites achieved overwhelming majorities of up to 97 and 98%, the Poles prevented all further plebiscites. Upper Silesia, despite a clear German majority, was terrorized by Polish rebellions, during which time German residents were repeatedly attacked for so long that Upper Silesia was partitioned by the League of Nations as the result of French pressure and French extortion. West Prussia was therefore lost without a plebiscite. We were therefore forced to become Polish citizens. I experienced life in Poland and suffered enough there to be well aware of the Polish national character from my own experience.
    ....
    A Polish proverb states: Póki s wiat s wiatem, Polak Niemcowi nie bedzie bratem.
    In translation, this means: As long as the world exists, a Pole will never be a brother to the Germans -- a truly malicious saying, which has no equivalent in German-speaking regions. This proverb is an expression of the great vehemence of Polish hatred.
    .....
    What are the origins of this merciless hatred? Is there any historical justification for it? No, not at all.
    ......

    After a lengthy narrative about the Poles and their history, the author comes to this paragraph:
    And the author continues:
    Read on here, it is a lengthy and thorough article...
    http://www.cwporter.com/loeser2.htm
    ------------

    The author reminds me very much of Ursula Haverbeck, another upright standing German citizen, a vanishing breed these days.
    The OP question rather should be: Who is responsible for the outbreak of the Second WW?
    That question is answered at length by an eye and ear witness from that time in this essay.
    I have read that it was Roosevelt who wanted war. Perhaps I will find that particular article and post it here separately.

    Another shocking revelation! In 1990, the then Polish Prime Minister Lech Walesa made his feelings towards his German neighbors publicly known:
    "I do not even shrink from a statement that is not going to make me popular in Germany: if the Germans destabilize Europe anew, in some way or other, then partition is no longer what will have to be resorted to, but rather that country will have to be erased from the map, pure and simple. East and West have at their disposal the advanced technology necessary to carry this verdict out."

    http://www.wintersonnenwende.com/scriptorium/english/archives/articles/wrsynopsis.html
     
  4. RUS

    RUS Member

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    I will not say about that these figures are statistics were obtained during the 2w wars, and they didn't exist in 1939. :)

    I'm talking that To bomb the warships in the Heligoland Bight it is more &#8220;extremely difficult&#8221;.
    I'm talking about the fact that the warship is protected from the bomber. Warship has the protected by an anti-aircraft artillery, a port's artillery, and a fighter aircraft.

    The British bombed the warships it was not the help for the Poland.
    The British and French didn't bombed roads, ammunition depots and factories ,,,,,,,although it didn't have such a strong protection.
    They even didn't bombed the German line of defense "West Wall". What could be simpler?

    The British and French were afraid that Germans will afraid and could bring back some troops from Poland .
    &#8220;back some troops from Poland&#8221; - . It was not there in the plans of Britain.


    You are as the lawyer in the old American joke. You were able to achieve for your client only &#8220; to reduce voltage of a few volts&#8221;.[​IMG]

    /
     
  5. RUS

    RUS Member

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    What benefit could be for Britain from it?

    Strictly speaking , - &#8220; The outbreak of the Second World War &#8220; was not in Poland 1939, but it was in Munich 1938. >>>>> When Hitler invaded the all territory of Czechoslovakia with the help of Britain.

    /
     
  6. unbiased institute

    unbiased institute Member

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    I wonder why :roll:
    Britain only had about 120 or so Bristol Blenheim's
    They didn't succeed.
    Ergo a very had target to hit.
    I did tell you that there wasn't anything else to do.
    It didn't matter as the RAF didn't have the numbers nor accurate sights
    What could be more pointless?
    I have no idea as to what this means.
    You're running out of arguments.
     
  7. Jazz

    Jazz Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    England was the ruling empire at the time and for sure did not wish to have little Germany upset the apple cart or power balance by getting strong and stronger in Europe through taking back some of the ancient lands that had been partitioned off in Versailles.
    Also, it was England's ally, the Americans, who wanted war for their own reasons. They urged England and Poland to trick Hitler into attacking. You should read about

    President Roosevelt's Campaign To Incite War in Europe: The Secret Polish Documents
    It deals particularly with his efforts to pressure Britain, France and Poland into war against Germany in 1938 and 1939.

    Here is the link: http://www.ihr.org/jhr/v04/v04p135_Weber.html
    Yes, Hitler wanted to take back the former German lands, which included Yugoslavia. Chamberlain was at first amicable and agreed to Hitler taking back a chunk of Czechoslovakia, which was actually an artificially new country, created after WWI. But after that Roosevelt told them to stop being cooperative with Hitler. England stopped!
    That Hitler couldn't leave part of Czechoslowakia for the allied forces to have as base for bombing Germany should be clear to anyone in Europe at the time.

    Here is an excerpt from the above link:
    What business of Roosevelt was it to meddle in European affairs? Just like they do today across the globe!

    Anyway, RUS, you can see much more is involved in starting WWII than Hitler marching into Poland. Hitler certainly did not want a World War, he just wanted to settle the Corridor issue as well as stop the Poles from harassing and killing the ethnic Germans living in what had become Polish territory after the chopping-up of Germany by the Geezers in Versailles.
     
  8. RUS

    RUS Member

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    They even didn't bombed the German line of defense "West Wall". What could be simpler?

    "Allies" had to do everything in their power to help Poland.If they wanted to help.

    Britain and France could to bomb the "West Wall". Immediately. They could bombard the "West Wall" by artillery. It would have been preparing for the assault. The Germans would afraid and withdraw some troops from Poland to "West Wall".
    PS
    You don't have an argument to reduce the voltage electrocution of your client even at one volt.
     
  9. unbiased institute

    unbiased institute Member

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    That really hasn't answered the question.
    Which is exactly what happened.
    Considering it wasn't even a significant military target there wouldn't have been any point.
    The Siegfried line was unfinished and under-gunned.
    Which might have delayed the inevitable
    You haven't addressed any of the other points so I have assume that you had conceded them.
    And coming from someone that thought the invasion of Poland was in 1941 then remarks such as that carry little to no weight.
     
  10. RUS

    RUS Member

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    Did The Allies bombed and shelled "Westwall"? Do you have this information? Give me a link please.
     
  11. unbiased institute

    unbiased institute Member

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    You need to learn to read
     
  12. RUS

    RUS Member

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    You can not give the link?:smile:
     
  13. RUS

    RUS Member

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    Good. Suppose that it is true.
    Then answer me (and yourself) to the question:

    What Roosevelt wanted, when he «efforts to pressure Britain, France and Poland into war against Germany in 1939»?
    Did Roosevelt (and Churchill) wanted to Poland defeated Germany in 1939?
    If "yes",,,,,,then why "allies" did not helped to Poland when Germany began to smash Poland?
     
  14. unbiased institute

    unbiased institute Member

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    What link?
     
  15. RUS

    RUS Member

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    Lawyer suffers amnesia or pretends to, it does not matter. If the required link is not provided, it means that the "allies" did not fulfill their obligations to Poland.
    Verdict: Britain and France got electric chair.:oldman:

    /
     
  16. unbiased institute

    unbiased institute Member

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    God you really are juvenile.
    So far not a single one of your arguments has had any credibility or factual basis in which to support them.

    Personally I think that you really are suffering from a classic case of Russian xenophobia coupled with Ockhams Razor.

    So ultimately this has just been a waste of time because you wouldn't accept anything else save for your own preconceptions and that begs the question; why are you here on this forum?
     
  17. Jazz

    Jazz Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Indulge yourself here:

    Why We Go to War

    http://faculty.virginia.edu/setear/courses/howweget/fdr.htm
     
  18. RUS

    RUS Member

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    If "yes",,,,,,then why "allies" did not helped to Poland when Germany began to smash Poland?
    So, you can not answer that question?
     
  19. RUS

    RUS Member

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    Well. Let's check your arguments. :knifefork:

    On the basis of our discussion I wrote the dialogue Poland and the "Allies" in that situation.
    I have no imagination to invent the next Polish replica.
    I should be obliged if you could help me please. [​IMG]

    .
     
  20. Jonsa

    Jonsa Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    What a ridiculous strawman. do you always present such fallacious arguments?

    The war started after Hitler et.al ran a false flag operation blaming the poles and then invaded. The day after, Britain declared war on Germany. The fact that in 1939 rapid military response meant months of preparation is not a failure, its was merely a fact. Germany spent YEARS preparing for its war and for that the "allies" shoulder some responsibility for letting that happen under their noses, but Hitler NEEDED the resources to maintain the reich. You are aware that if it wasn't for the Austrian annexation, Germany would have been bankrupt, aren't you?

    this pathetic attempt to blame others for the heinous actions of the Nazi's is to be expected, but its still pathetic.
     
  21. Jazz

    Jazz Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Sorry, RUS, you are getting befuddled and muddled. That question you asked unbiassed Institute, not me.
    I answered your question of what Roosevelt wanted.

    :bored: :yawn: :roll: :blankstare:
     
  22. unbiased institute

    unbiased institute Member

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    <sigh> You've already lost this debate.
    No. This is your interpretation and you're an imbecile for writing it.
    That doesn't even make sense in English
    You seem to be helping yourself.
    .
     
  23. unbiased institute

    unbiased institute Member

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    No he was asking you. He just didn't read your link or couldn't
     
  24. Flare

    Flare Banned

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    Poland is not taken over YET, since there's no money to get there by the migrants.

    They mostly go to West-Europe and Scandinavia. But believe me... if Germany, France and Sweden fall, so goes the rest of Europe and Poland along with it.

    The flow of immigration started about a decade after Germany had lost WW II, as then the "Coudenhove-Kalergi" plan came into effect, which is set out on the destruction of the European people. The Germans were well aware of this plan btw, and therefore tried to save Europe from it, including communism.

    Since Germany has lost, ALL European countries including that of the allies UK and the United States are being flooded with millions upon millions of migrants, which will eventually lead to their destruction. This due to the fact that ever since Germany has lost WW II, the Zionists have regained their iron grip back on the targeted nations.

    [​IMG]

    So, pat yourself on the back for Germany losing the war... but now we're all going down along with it.
     
  25. RUS

    RUS Member

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    The original of this issue here. Post #138.

    http://www.politicalforum.com/histo...hy-germany-invaded-poland-mod-warning-14.html

     

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