Israel in violation of 4th Geneva Conventions

Israel created 900,000 dunams of State Land out of thin air.

how did they do that?

you have no answers, just Neo-Zionist propaganda.

 

The answer was laws not propaganda. It seems that you cant notice the difference of meaning of the words "Laws" and "Propaganda".

 

there is no law that says Israel can steal 900,000 dunams of land to be used just for Jews.

its called "theft".

 

The Ottoman law (that still exist in the West Bank) says otherwise:

As you can see, Israel classified private lands as state lands according to this law, which means that Israel obeys law, therefore, doesnt steal

 

so Israel ignores Jordanian and British law, which was enacted under the UN approved Mandate for Palestine?

thanks for admitting that.

 

Thats not what I said! stop destorting my words!!

Israel is obeying Ottoman, British, Jordanian, Intrernational in the West Bank. I already showed you that- stop ignoring please.

 

Jordanians followed British law, and British law was officially sanctioned by the League of Nations and United Nations as the Mandate for Palestine.

These laws registered cultivated land to Arab farmers.

Israel STOPPED registering cultivated land to Arab farmers, in violation of Jordanian and British law.

and YOU support this violation of British and Jordanian law.

this is why the world hates Israel.

 

I dont soppurt violating laws! on the contrary.
As I already wrote to you:

Here you can see that Israel obeid international law (= the Hague Convention) as the Jordanian law (= the Jordanian Trading with the Enemy Ordinance, 1939 which got influenced from the British Trading with the Enemy Ordinance).

 

British law as part of the Mandate for Palestine was international law, and Israel ignores it every day.

 

You are talking about the Land Transfer Regulations, 1940, right? so let me say something about it:
After the establishment of Israel lagislated the Order Law and Administration Ordinance. That ordinance was the first thing that got lagislated and in it's 14th Article was written that all the Governmental powers that've been Subjected to the king of Britain, his secretary of state and the High Commissioner will be transfered to the Israeli government.
That lagislation regulated the transition from the British Mandate to an independent state.

 

someone lied to you, as Israel is NOT following Ottoman Law!!!!

Under article 78 of the Ottoman Land Code , a farmer who cultivated miri land for 10 years without objection by the state acquires ownership rights in it. The statute does not define the nature of the cultivation needed to acquire the ownership. This has important implications as the Central Mountain Range in the West Bank is characterized by rocky land, only a small portion of which is arable. The Mandatory Supreme Court ruled that in a rocky parcel of miri land, cultivation of pockets of fertile land scattered here and there grants the farmer ownership rights in the entire parcel. This doctrine was applied in the West Bank also during the period of Jordanian rule.

In its declarations policy, Israel applied a different and more stringent interpretation: a person who claimed rights in rocky land must prove that he cultivated at least 50 percent of the entire parcel. If the pockets of land under cultivation amounted to less than 50 percent, the entire parcel was deemed state land, leaving the farmer with no rights whatsoever. By doing so, Israel classified as government property land that, under the local Law, was private Palestinian property.
http://www.btselem.org/publications/summaries/201203_under_the_guise_of_legality


Israel is not following British law, Jordanian law, or even Turkish law.

they are stealing land, and they will be punished!!!!

 

And when Arab didnt cultivate their land, then it become state lands. Something that Israel is respecting! the evidence for it you can see when Israel evecuated Jews in the West Bank.

Israel is obeying law. The evidence for that is that an Arab came to a piece of land near a Jewish settlement in the West Bank and wanted to cultivate it. but what was te problem? that this Arab came to thta land after 10 years, therefore, he couldnt cultivate that land because he lost this land according to the Ottoman law.

 

yeah, and the IDF and armed settler thugs prevent Arabs from cultivating their lands for three years, which then forces them to forfeit the land.

(*)(*)(*)(*)ing scumbag theives!!!!!

Israel is ignoring Turkish, British, and Jordanian law.

they are thieves and will be punished.

 

The IDF doesnt prevent from Arabs to cultivate their lands! on the contrary, the IDF protect the Arab while they cultivating their lands. I already many times (as a soldier) protected Arabs while they cultivating their lands.

If you will re-write it over and over again, it doesnt make it true!
You are just ignoring what I wrote it.

 

the Israelis lied to you, of course they keep Arabs from cultivating their land

http://www.haaretz.com/news/court-case-reveals-how-settlers-illegally-grab-west-bank-lands-1.241487#!

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Israel ignores Turkish, British, and Jordanian law regarding registering cultivated land to Arab farmers.

 

America violated the Geneva Conventions under Bush, I really doubt the Geneva Conventions will have much bite anymore after that

 

The ones that grab lands illegaly are ben evecuated. Israel already done it.
I protected Arabs as a soldier to cultivate their land, this is a personal experience.

Your source's debunking it's own claim:

Which means that more then a decade no Arab came back to the land and cultivated it, therefore, according to the laws, this land is no longer belongs to the Arab.

If you will re-write it over and over again, it doesnt make it true!
You are just ignoring what I wrote it.

 

Ive already shown you how Israel ignores Turkish law.

you just keep denying it, like how folks deny the Holocaust.

 

Israel is not ignoring the Turkish law, Israel's obeying it- I already showed you how.
It's pitty that you keep ignoring law.

 

Israel lied to you, as they are not obeying Turkish law.

they are ignoring it.

 

Your source says otherwise!!

 

my sources that I have posted PROVE that Israel isn't following Turkish law, but violating it.

 

Your source says:

Which means that more then a decade no Arab came back to the land and cultivated it, therefore, according to the laws, this land is no longer belongs to that Arab.

The second source says about the Ottoman law:

Which means. that if the state object to the cultivation of the farmer in miri land, the land wouldnt be his private land!
According to this law, the state (in this case Israel) can object when a farmer cultivate miri land (state land), therefore, when an Arab cultivate a state land in the West Bank Israel have the ultimate right to object his cultivation- Israel is doing it, thus, Israel is obeying Article 78.

 

The IDF and armed settler thugs keep Arabs from cultivating their lands.

 

Israel isn't declaring Arab lands "State Lands" because they object to their taking ownership of the land, they are declaring Arab lands "State Lands", because the Arabs aren't cultivating at least 50% of the parcel, in VIOLATION of Turkish, British, and Jordanian law!!!!!!!!

stop justifying Israeli theft of Arab land!!!!