There are some folks who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week. The Messiah said that He would be in the "heart of the earth" for 3 days and 3 nights (Matthew 12:40). Of those who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week, there are some who think that the "heart of the earth" mentioned in the verse is referring to the tomb. However, a 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection allows for only 2 nights to be involved with the Messiah's time in the tomb. To account for the lack of a 3rd night, there may be some of those mentioned above who try to explain the lack of a 3rd night by saying that the Messiah was using common figure of speech/colloquial language. And that is the only issue of this topic, i.e., the commonality of saying that a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred. I wonder if anyone who may fall in the above group of believers might provide actual examples/instances to support the belief of commonality.
I don't see what your comment has to do with this topic. I wonder if you might explain why you think that it's applicable?
Just trying to see if there are any examples which show that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could be.
Probably he is saying that from Good Friday (evening) to Easter Sunday (morning) is really less than two days; that is, there are not three daylight periods nor three nighttime periods, in that span of time. Why this is all that important, he hasn't explained. Maybe it shows that Jesus also fibs? Or maybe whoever showed up at Golgatha, to speak to Mary Magdalene, was an imposter, as Jesus was still in the "heart of the earth?" The alternate, though unlikely, translation, would be that he is wondering why Jesus would say he would be away for 3 days & nights, if he was going down to Hell, where there are no days or nights.
Perhaps this can de explained by an ancient form of daylight savings time, with which we are not familiar?
I was going to ask if you realized that Jesus didn't speak English, and that any Bible you are reading has gone through various translations, in different languages. But instead, I Googled your answer, for you. Apparently, Jesus's time "in the heart of the earth," according to this source, did not refer exclusively to his time in the tomb: <Google Snip> The interval “three days and three nights in the heart of earth” therefore refers only to a discrete and unique period of time in which Jesus's body was located in Jerusalem prior to his resurrection. That time was from Thursday evening to Sunday morning. It included burial in the tomb, but only for part of that time.May 4, 2021 https://journals.sagepub.com › full Jesus in the Heart of the Earth: Deciphering the Jonah Saying (Matthew <End Snip>
DEFinning, Your 3 posts deal with issues for a different topic, which is odd since you even quoted my post saying what the issue is. Maybe you could start a new one.
There is a lengthy explanation here. https://lifehopeandtruth.com/life/p...s-holidays/sign-of-jonah/3-days-and-3-nights/ “It is clear from the Scriptures that Jesus Christ was neither crucified on Friday nor resurrected on Sunday morning. He was crucified on a Wednesday afternoon, entombed around 6 p.m. and resurrected 72 hours later, around 6 p.m. on Saturday.” Of course if you are only looking for an explanation about colloquialisms then it doesn’t answer your question but the solution to the Jonah sign is not about colloquialisms. According to this, Jesus said what he meant and meant what he said.
That makes absolutely no difference to me. There is documentation from Roman history that the crucifixion took place. What was considered the demarcation point between one day and the next, when their clocks started over, whether there were errors in reporting times, etc., etc. It's fun to think about, maybe, but ...
[QUOTE="Dirty Rotten Imbecile, post: 1074447399, member: 72110 Of course if you are only looking for an explanation about colloquialisms then it doesn’t answer your question...[/QUOTE] I'm not. I'm merely asking about examples which show that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have been involved.
I'm not. I'm merely asking about examples which show that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have been involved.[/QUOTE] I think the question, on the minds, of those who are still paying any mind to your thread, is WHY you have any interest in finding these examples; what relevance would there be in finding them; what relevance would it have, if no examples could be found?
BTW, though it was easy for me to see this reply, among so few others, if you do this in other threads, your replies will often not be seen, by the person for whom you intend them. If you do not wish to quote the other person's posting, in whole or part, you can still send them an alert of your post by typing @(member's name). So, if I hadn't already quoted you, I would somewhere include @rstrats . In most cases, you will find you do not need type more than the first few letters, before a little box will appear, with the full name (or a choice of names), which you merely need tap on the correct one. Your name appeared for me, for example, after just @rst. Welcome to the forum!
There are hundreds of obvious contradictions in the Bible and even more than contradict basic history and science. I actually find this to be one of the lesser ones. It is impossible to be an honest Biblical literalist.
It’s not really a contradiction of the Bible. The church wanted to have a weekend holiday, so they set the days to Friday and Sunday. The actual chronology of the Bible is different. It’s just like saying he was born on Dec 25 when he wasn’t.
[QUOTE="DEFinning I think the question, on the minds, of those who are still paying any mind to your thread, is WHY you have any interest in finding these examples... [/QUOTE] Simply curious - nothing more, nothing less. BTW, why is it necessary to know "why" before providing examples?
Resurrection on the Sabbath would be illegal as it would be a form of work. Moving the stone would be a form of work too. But let's not allow the technicalities spoil a superstitious myth.
The OP topic INCLUDES which day the resurrection occurred, I addressed the issue of it occurring on the Sabbath. FTR if you consider a post to be off topic you can report your complaint to the Moderators under Rule 5, just provide them with the reason why you consider it be disruptive. Have you read the TOS? If not there is a link at the bottom of every page.
The mention of "folks who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week" was merely one of the requirements for whom this topic is directed. Discussing the requirements is not intended for the purpose of this particular topic. Rule 5. "If you don't want to discuss the topic, stay out of the thread. Posts that are, in the judgment of moderators or administrators, intended to disrupt a discussion rather than actually contribute to it will be considered trolling." The issue of the topic is explained in the OP. "And that is the only issue of this topic, i.e., the commonality of saying that a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred. I wonder if anyone who may fall in the above group of believers might provide actual examples/instances to support the belief of commonality." As for disruption, I don't think that was your intention.
Basically, you are trying to take what was an idiom back then, not to mention another language, and treat it as literal English. Doesn't work that way.
Actually it would have been from Friday evening to Sunday morning. First you have to remember that in that era, the day ended at sundown and that is when the new day began. There was a rush to get Jesus down off the cross and into the tomb before sundown because that was the beginning of the Sabbath. So he died on the first day. It doesn't matter that it was towards the end of that day. That is how they viewed it. From Friday sundown to Saturday sundown (mind you I am speaking from our adjusted calendar of days) it was the Sabbath (the second day) and nothing could be done further about the body. The Sabbath of course ended on Saturday sundown, but since it was dark, nothing really could be done at that point. Thus it was Sunday morning (the third day) before the women could do anything with the body. And as noted above, the saying in Matthew was a common phrasing of that time, which accounted for any portion of that day. It should also be noted that it wasn't until the beginning of the 2nd century that Christians made the shift from Saturday to Sunday for the Sabbath, moving it so that the Sabbath was on the same day as Easter.
