It's over for white people?

Discussion in 'Immigration' started by chronotrigger, Oct 10, 2014.

  1. mikemikev

    mikemikev Banned

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    Provide evidence of this.
     
  2. Object227

    Object227 Well-Known Member

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    Instead of bemoaning the alleged disappearance of a particular race, why not instead bemoan the disappearance of rationality? Race doesn't dictate anyone's ideas.
     
  3. mikemikev

    mikemikev Banned

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    Nobody claimed race "dictated" ideas. However the White race is the most independently minded and rational, with a focus on universal truths rather than group oriented lies. And why does bemoaning one preclude bemoaning the other? "The disappearance of rationality" you interject at random to distract from the point, if this is even the case, would have more to do with lying racist Semites dominating academia and media.
     
  4. Ronstar

    Ronstar Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    lol...evidence for this?
     
  5. Object227

    Object227 Well-Known Member

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    I'm willing to reason with you on the subject but if you start by claiming the above, then there is no point. You have just articulated a racist view.
     
  6. mikemikev

    mikemikev Banned

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    Ironically you are totally irrational by dismissing a priori any possibility of race differences because it's "racist".

    - - - Updated - - -

    Noted that you change the subject to avoid providing evidence for your assertion that Jews are White.
     
  7. Ronstar

    Ronstar Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    still waiting for that evidence
     
  8. mikemikev

    mikemikev Banned

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    Why should I answer your later question when you don't have the courtesy to answer my earlier one?
     
  9. Ronstar

    Ronstar Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    according to the law of every nation in North America and Europe, most Caucasian Jews are in fact "white".

    happy?

    now, you're turn.
     
  10. mikemikev

    mikemikev Banned

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    Assuming this is even true, according to "the law" of the Soviet Union, genetics had no effect. You are appealing to authority.

    Define White and show that most Jews are White.
     
  11. Ronstar

    Ronstar Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    i have you my answer,

    now its your turn.
     
  12. mikemikev

    mikemikev Banned

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    You didn't answer the question, you evaded it with a fallacy.
     
  13. Ronstar

    Ronstar Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    i defended my claim to the best of my knowledge and ability.

    now its your turn to support your claim, if you can.
     
  14. mikemikev

    mikemikev Banned

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    "The best of your knowledge and ability" is some dubious unsourced assertion? Source the laws in question. You don't get to give me a brush off answer and change the subject.

    If the US government classes Iraqis and Egyptians as "White" then the US government is using a defintion not in common parlance.
     
  15. Ronstar

    Ronstar Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    so you never had any intention of supporting your claim, I see.
     
  16. mikemikev

    mikemikev Banned

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    Nonsense. Common courtesy requires addressing points in order. Anything else is evasion by subject changing. Sadly you failed to support your claim. Jews are not White. So we can turn to mine.
     
  17. Ronstar

    Ronstar Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    according to the rules & laws of most nations, many Jews are considered white.

    the idea that one must be 100% Scandinavian stock to be white, is absurd.

    if natives of Italy, Greece, Slovenia, Bulgaria, Croatia, Serbia, can be white, than so can many Ashkenazi Jews.
     
  18. mikemikev

    mikemikev Banned

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    Indeed natives of Italy, Greece, Slovenia, Bulgaria, Croatia, Serbia are White. Jews are hybrid White/Turkoid-Semite.
     
  19. Ronstar

    Ronstar Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    so you're saying during the many centuries of Roman and Greek emperial rule, ONLY the Jews mixed with other peoples?

    there was no east-west mixing in the northeastern mediteranean region?

    lol!!!!! of course there was.

    [​IMG]


    keep in mind, conversion to Judaism only became a crime in the 4th century AD. Before then, there was lots of intermingling and conversion of non-Jews in the Roman Empire.
     
  20. mikemikev

    mikemikev Banned

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    And we segue effortlessly into the ridiculous all/nothing fallacies

    https://right.orain.org/wiki/Argumentum_ad_omnibus
     
  21. Ronstar

    Ronstar Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    so you're saying there wasn't a widespread conversion of Gentiles to Judaism throughout modern-day Turkey, Greece, Italy, Yugoslavia, Bulgaria, until the 4th century AD?

    of course there was.

    not only that, but many Jewish men left Judea and took non-Jewish wives in Europe, which is evidenced by the mitochondrial DNA of Ashkenazi and Sephardic Jews showing a large non-Levantine European cluster.

    deny it all you like, but Ashkenazi and Sephardic Jews are part European. :)

    nevermind the fact that there was lots of inter-mixing of peoples throughout the Roman Empire. This is why many Greeks, Italians, Serbs, Croats, Bulgarians, Spaniards, French, Bosnians, are darker than other Europeans.
     
  22. Ronstar

    Ronstar Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    they have 2,500 years of mixture with North Africans, Turks, and other Levantines, due to their proximity to the Roman and Greek empires.

    if they are white, so are Ashkenazi and Sephardic Jews.
     
  23. mikemikev

    mikemikev Banned

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  24. mikemikev

    mikemikev Banned

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    No because you totally ignore how much mixture there was, relative to Nords. It's the same all/some/nothing false di/tri...chotomy the dishonest with vested interests apply to any discussion of group differences,
     
  25. Ronstar

    Ronstar Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Nordics are not "pure" white people. They mixed with Asiatic tribes in the extreme north. Look at Swedes and Norweigans and their mixture with the Lapps, who are Asiatic.
     

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