"The reason why Germany invaded Poland was ..... <<MOD WARNING>>

1) Britain could bomb. Immediately. At least.

2) Stalin went to Poland after in two weeks. When Poland had no chance. And most importantly - when it became clear that Britain and France threw Poland.

 

That's exactly what happened. However it was pointless.

So you agree then?

As I said it was not possible to help Poland

 

Oh please, most of West Prussia was majority Polish.

Look at Poznan a city which was majority Polish from the 10th century, when Mieszko I the founder of modern Poland was baptized in Poznan,Poland all the way up until the early 20th century when Poznan was still majority Polish.

Why should have Polish not have had a right to this city?

As for Gdansk, it's more complex, the German Teutons came to Poland as "Friends" invited into Poland in the early 1300's, when those German Teutons burned Gdansk to the ground, killed up to 10,000 Polish in the Gdansk Massacre, and promptly bought in German settlers.

As time went on Gdansk went back, and forth between Poland, and Germans, and was obviously mixed German, and Polish, but in the Partitions of Poland Germans soon bought in more German settlers to West Prussia, in Germanisation, which lead to Gdansk becoming very German.

But, I suppose a bunch of "Colonists" deserve more right to Gdansk, than it's original founders of the Polish.

 

If only Polish leader Jozef Pilsudski had got his dream of Intermarium, the region between Germany, and Russia would have been stronger, and been able to inflict much more serious losses on both the Nazis, and the Soviets.

 

Soviets made the Nazi German war effort possible, through the German - Soviet Credit Agreement / German - Soviet Commercial Agreement, the Nazis got loads of raw supplies for their war effort.

 

Britain first helped the Nazis in Munich Agreement, which allowed the Nazis to gain Skoda in Czechoslovakia, which built up Nazi German tanks, and motor vehicles significantly, actually the best Nazi tank during the invasion of Poland was the Czech Skoda 38 (t)

Britain then helped Soviets in lend-lease, which allowed them to fight to Berlin, before Britain in Yalta Conference, and Potsdam Conference allowed for the Soviet takeover of Poland.

I don't see Britain as any kind of ally of Poland.

Actually in Britain followed WW2, they did some anti-Polish things.
Such as.

- Going against Polish participation in WW2 victory parades, because it upset Stalin.

- Charging Polish for their army maintenance during WW2, even though these Polish HELPED Britain.

- Keeping the death record of Polish Wladyslaw Sikorski from the Polish people.

 

I think another poster has already addressed that issue. I also I don't think that the VZ 38 was the best tank as the Germans did have a number of P-III's. The P-38 was better than the P-II's because of the armament that was carried.

What did you expect to happen?

That's your opinion.

That's not true actually.
Most of those that served under British command didn't believe that the new Polish government represented them but despite that Poles did actually parade alongside their RAF comrades in arms.
I should also point out that Churchill did invite the Polish government to the London victory parade despite objections.

This seems to another war myth. Maybe someone should recant the Polish cavalry brigades galloping towards German tanks

I don't see the problem here except with the word "charge"

Which could have easily been misinterpreted

 

Well actually Austria was meant to unify the German race. Austrians are just Germans living in Austria, and they speak German there. So Hitler wanted to unify Prussia, Germany, and Austria first before looking for lebensraum for the Aryan race, in Eastern Europe, which meant Russia, Poland, and anything in between. Also, Hitler was from Austria in the first place. So of course he'd want to include his homeland in his conquests. It was a diplomatic unification though.

 

Someone has gathered it all together:

Eight Reasons Hitler Invaded Poland​

1. To give Germans lebensraum in Eastern Europe

He had promised this in Mein Kampf (1924) and it was one of the three CENTRAL AIMS of Hitler foreign policy.


2. Because he thought Chamberlain would not dare stop him

Chamberlain had stood up to Hitler, remember, at Bad Godesberg during the Sudeten crisis, but had then backed down at Munich. Hitler despised Chamberlain, and did not believe that he would dare to go to war. So he felt able to pursue his aims in Poland despite Chamberlain's promise in March 1939 to support Poland.


3. To defend the Germans in Poland

The reason Hitler gave was that the Poles were persecuting those Germans who lived in Poland. (There was some truth in this.)


4. To overturn the Treaty of Versailles

This was a second CENTRAL AIM of Hitler's foreign policy. The Polish Corridor and Posen had been given to Poland in 1919, and Danzig had been declared a free city administered by the League of Nations. Hitler first asked Poland to consider the position of Danzig in October 1938, immediately after Munich, and in March 1939, Hitler demanded that he be given Danzig (this was the pattern he had followed with Austria and the Sudetenland). Did you know that in March 1939 also, Germany seized the Lithuanian port of Memel (at the northern end of East Prussia)? When Hitler demanded Danzig in March 1939, Brauchitsch, the Commander in Chief of the German Army noted that he intended ultimately to 'knock Poland down completely', and that eventually Hitler wanted Germany's pre-WWI boundary restoring.


5. To oppose Communism/conquer Russia

I know Poland wasn't communist, but Russia was where Hitler was eventually headed (Mein Kampf, 1924) and Poland was just another step east. When he demanded Danzig in 1939, Hitler's proposal included a joint anti-Soviet alliance against Russia. This was the third CENTRAL AIM of Hitler foreign policy.


6. To teach Chamberlain a lesson

Chamberlain's guarantee of Poland on 31 March 1939 infuriated Hitler - 'I'll cook them a stew they'll choke on' - was his reaction. From then on he was determined to destroy Poland. So you could say he wanted to attack Poland to teach Chamberlain a lesson.


7. To prevent an anti-German alliance

Having thought about it, he realised also that the world was beginning to gang up on him, so the next day, 1 April, his CONSIDERED reaction was this: 'if they expect Germany to sit patiently by while they create satellite States and set them against Germany, then they are mistaken'. This is fair enough, actually, because that is exactly what Chamberlain was trying to do. And Poland was preparing to resist Hitler, and had started mobilising its army - Hitler stated that this broke Poland's non-aggression pact with Germany [see note below]. On April 3 Hitler issued a directive to his armies - entitled 'Case White' - stating that he wished to 'destroy Polish military strength and create in the East a situation which satisfies the requirements of national defense'. In this document, he set the date for 'Case White' - 'any time from 1 September 1939 onward.' - and told the Wehrmacht to draw up a timetable.


8. The Nazi-Soviet Pact

After April 1939, both Roosevelt and Stalin began to express concerns about Hitler's aims on Poland. Hitler merely mocked Roosevelt, but he was worried about Stalin. Only Stalin - and the Russian army - could have stopped Hitler taking over Poland at this point. But the failure of the Anglo-Soviet negotiations and the Nazi-Soviet Pact of 23 August 1939 not only freed up Hitler to attack Poland, it included a secret agreement to divide Poland up between them. In the end, Hitler invaded Poland because he had agreed to do so with Stalin.


Note: Poland's mobilization?

I have had an email from an historian who questioned the statement in point 7 above that Poland's partial mobilization in 1938 broke the provisions of the 1934 non-aggression pact. The historian defended the Polish action in this way:

"This was an unofficial, partial and unpublished mobilization, involving 4 infantry divisions and 1 cavalry brigade."

ALSO, as the historian reminded me, the partial mobilization:

"had been conducted in response to massive troop movements from within Germany to the Polish borders, and to the arrival of German troops into Slovakia, on Poland's southern flank, following the dismemberment of Czechoslovakia"

and he therefore commented:

"To the extent that you consider this mobilization an infringement on the non-aggression pact, would you not consider the German troop movements such as well?"

All of which is fair comment.

http://www.johndclare.net/RoadtoWWII3_HitlerInvadesPoland.htm
--------------

What do you think?
I believe #3 was the immediate reason. That he made an agreement with Stalin to split Poland between them, shows me it was not just a little dispute, but rather a serious occupation of a sovereign state. It was an aggression which would bear consequences which he was willing to accept and tackle.
Was Hitler naive? Yes, I think he was. He should have retreated after he rescued the ethnic Germans out of Poland.
Would Stalin have retreated as well? Hard to say.
There are so many variables it is hard to be prepared for all of them or make the one right choice.
Basically, they all had it in for Germany and the Germans would sooner or later have to defend themselves again.
I don't know why the Germans are so unlovable. What is their crime? What have they done but honorably defend themselves?
Now, in total obedience to USrael, they are accepted and useful to fight proxy wars for the US, provide military bases for drone operations and storage of dangerous nuclear weapons. Such honor!
If Hitler and all the dead soldiers could see this now, they would be very happy... finally the Germans are accepted in the international community, albeit as vassals only !!
To give is better than to take!

 

I think that the only reason was this:

everything else - this is a consequence of these reason .

/

.

 

Whatever you say! I'm getting tired and bored. One thing is clear to me, though... Hitler didn't invade Russia because he wanted land from them. He invaded, because he found out that Stalin was going to attack Germany.

 

Premptive.

Is that justified in this case?

 

Hitler was not afraid to attack Czechoslovakia in 1938, when Germany was weak. Hitler would not be afraid to attack Poland when Germany became really strong.
If Stalin did not sign the pact, then nothing would have changed. Stalin could not get involved in a war with Hitler in those conditions.
1) In 1939, Russia was even more unprepared for war than in 1941.
2) If Stalin had grappled with Hitler because of Poland in September 1939, Britain and France would help Hitler .....with pleasure. (Against the communist threat)

 

If Stalin was going to attack Hitler, only because Hitler was going to attack Russia. Hitler planned it in 1925.It is a historical fact.

 

Oh no, Britain and France hated the Germans. Otherwise they would have declared war on Stalin right in September 1939. It was only after the war that the West became aware of the Communist threat, hence the "Cold War".

I don't know why Hitler took over Czechoslovakia. I think it made sense to him!

 

What Do you think .....when Hitler could learn that Stalin wanted to attack Germany? How Hitler learned it?

 

The British and French hated even more Communist Stalin /
The British and French are threatened Czechs ..... they would help Hitler, if the Czechs ask for help from Russia.

/

 

1925 to 1939 is 14 long years and much water would run down the hill. Circumstances change and Hitler could have changed his mind by 1939. Nothing is set in cement! I do remember that he said in 1938, he needed four more years to rebuild Germany's defenses, which would have been to 1942.

Stalin, I believe, wanted to spread his communistic ideology all over Europe. Hitler knew this and wanted to prevent that.
Ready or not, Hitler couldn't wait any longer and took the bull by the horns.

 

o.k., maybe you are right... they all hated Stalin and not Hitler. Maybe I was sick that day and missed that particular lesson in school!

- - - Updated - - -

He had spies in airplanes.

 

"The Bremen Town Musicians" are singing for you now !!!
(the ancient Russian cartoon)

[video=youtube;I9BFHFcMuRE]https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=I9BFHFcMuRE[/video]

We - Star continents!
Scattering the nines
the Damned competitors.
We drove to you for an hour.
Hello, Bonjour, Hallow!
And you probably like us -
You are lucky!
Come together!
You hang your Ears ! (let oneself be fooled,)
It is better for a good,
Clap your hands !.......

/

 

It isn't "maybe rights" me. It is a historical fact.
PS
in the "particular lesson in school" you were taught this:

 

such a fact is not.

 

I assume that you're referring to my comment about the RAF bombings.
It is a fact and it did happen.

 

It's not that much of an historical fact...

And besides that, what did the Russians fight for?

For decades more tyranny and oppression by the communist government, to get friends and family hauled off to the gulags.

Way to go!

 

I wrote in the search engine "the RAF bombings Germany in 1939" .
I got :
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strategic_bombing_during_World_War_II

It is all.
Is it all? Do You call it - "....my comment about the RAF bombings." ?

/